SOLVED PAPER OF ASSISTANT DENTAL SURGEON-IMS/HEALTH SERVICES

SOLVED PAPER OF ASSISTANT DENTAL SURGEON-IMS/HEALTH SERVICES
QUESTION PAPER CODE-119/2017.
EXAM HELD ON 12.10.2017.


1. Which article of Indian constitution deals with ‘General Election’ ?
(A) Article 321 (B) Article 312 (C) Article 330 (D) Article 331
Ans: Question deleted.
Right answer is Article 324. Laws pertaining to the elections in India are contained in Part XV of the Indian Constitution. The provisions mentioned in the Articles (324 to 329) cover all aspects of conducting elections starting from inclusion of names in electoral roll to formulation of laws pertaining to elections.

2. Who is the Hajj affairs minister of Kerala ?
(A) A.C. Moideen (B) K.T. Jaleel (C) T.K. Hamza (D) G. Sudakaran
Ans: (B).

3. Which is the Headquarters of Calicut University ?
(A) Karyavattom (B) Mannuthi (C) Thrikkakara (D) Tenhippalam
Ans:D

4. Who is the first Keralite Oscar winner ?
(A) Vincent (B) P.J. Antony
(C) Rasool Pukkutty (D) Hariharan
Ans:C.

5. Dum Dum Airport of Kolkotta is renamed as __________ .
(A) Jyothibasu Airport (B) Rabindranath Tagore Airport
(C) Subash Chandra Bose Airport (D) Chathrapathi Shivaji Airport
Ans:C

6. ‘Upanishads’ generally deals with __________ .
(A) Philosophy (B) Vyakarana (C) Way of Life (D) Meditation
Ans: (A).

7. ‘Yasoda’ was the __________ of Buddha.
(A) Sister (B) Mother (C) Daughter (D) Wife
Ans: (D).

8. Which of the following was the centre of Sangam literature ?
(A) Mahodayapuram (B) Madurai
(C) Puhar (D) Kaveripattanam
Ans: (B).

9. Gandhiji’s first involvement in Indian political affairs was in __________ .
(A) Champaran Satyagraha (B) Anti - Rowlatt Act Campaign
(C) Salt Satyagraha (D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Ans: (B).

10. Salt Satyagraha in Kerala was at __________ .
(A) Payyannur (B) Kozhikode (C) Kodungallur (D) Kochi
Ans: (A).

11. Who was elected as the President of Central Legislative Assembly in 1925 as a representative
of Swarajist party ?
(A) Motilal Nehru (B) Vithal Bai Patel
(C) C.R. Das (D) Vallabai Patel
Ans: (B)

12. How many persons signed in ‘Malayali Memorial’ of 1891?
(A) 10048 (B) 10038 (C) 10018 (D) 10028
Ans: (D).

13. The first railway line in Kerala runs between __________ .
(A) Bepore and Tirur (B) Ernakulam and Thrissiveperur
(C) Kayamkulam and Shornnur (D) Kozhikode and Kannur
Ans: (A).

14. Who among the following is not a member of Cabinet Mission ?
(A) Pathik Lawrence (B) Strafford Cripps
(C) A.V. Alexander (D) Jhon Simon
Ans: (D).

15. Gandhi - Irwin Pact was in __________ .
(A) 1921 (B) 1931 (C) 1929 (D) 1932
Ans: (B).

16. Who is the author of ‘Neel Darpan’ ?
(A) Arabindo Gosh (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Deenbandhu Mitra (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans: (C).

17. Which one of the following was not the aim of Non-Co-operation Movement ?
(A) Attainment of Complete Independence
(B) Attainment of Swaraj
(C) Solution to Punjab problem
(D) Solution to Khilafath Issue
Ans: (A).

18. Who among the following is not the leader of Khilafath Movement ?
(A) Moulana Mohamedali (B) Moulana Shoukathali
(C) Hakim Ajmal Khan (D) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Ans: (D).

19. Who was the leader of ‘Pookottur war’ which occurred during Malabar Rebellion of 1921 ?
(A) Ali Musliyar (B) Vadakkeveettil Mohamed
(C) Karadan Moideen (D) Seethikoya Thangal
Ans: (B).

20. Which one of the following was not the feature of India Act of 1935 ?
(A) All India Federation (B) Provincial Autonomy
(C) Provincial Dyarchy (D) Separate Electorate
Ans: (C).

21. Sphenomandibular ligament is a remnant of :
(A) 1st Pharyngeal arch (B) 2nd Pharyngeal arch
(C) 3rd Pharyngeal arch (D) 4th Pharyngeal arch
Ans: (A).

22. Secretomotor innervation of parotid gland is derived from :
(A) Superior Salivatory nucleus (B) Inferior salivatory nucleus
(C) Nucleus tractus solitarius (D) Lacrimatory nucleus
Ans: (B).

23. Which of the following muscles of tongue is NOT supplied by hypoglossal nerve ?
(A) Styloglossus (B) Hyoglossus (C) Genioglossus (D) Palatoglossus
Ans: (D).

24. All are branches of external carotid artery EXCEPT :
(A) Inferior thyroid artery (B) Lingual artery
(C) Facial artery (D) Occipital artery
Ans: (A).

25. Which of the following muscles is the depressor of temporomandibular joint ?
(A) Temporalis (B) Massetor
(C) Lateral pterygoid (D) Medial pterygoid
Ans: (C).

26. Which is the main form of transport of CO2 in blood ?
(A) Carbamino Hb (B) Dissolved form
(C) Carbonic acid (D) Bicarbonate
Ans: (D).

27. Hemoglobin is converted to bilirubin in :
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Bone marrow (D) Kidney
Ans: (B).

28. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is :
(A) Glutamate (B) Glycine (C) GABA (D) Ach
Ans: (A).

29. Maximum absorption of water takes place in :
(A) Collecting duct (B) Distal convoluted tubule
(C) Proximal convoluted tubule (D) Loop of Henle
Ans: (C).

30. Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to :
(A) Albumin (B) Fibrinogen (C) RBC (D) Electrolytes
Ans: (A).

31. Chromosomal abnormality associated with Chronic myeloid leukaemia is :
(A) t(8;21) (B) t(9;22) (C) del 5q- (D) t(15;16)
Ans: (B).

32. __________ is a feature of chronic inflammation.
(A) Keloid (B) Suppuration
(C) Granulation tissue (D) Granuloma
Ans: (D).

33. Following are components of Virchow’s triad except :
(A) emboli (B) hypercoagulability
(C) altered blood flow (D) endothelial injury
Ans: (A).

34. Among the following, __________ is a proto oncogene.
(A) p53 (B) Rb (C) APC (D) cERB B2
Ans: (D).

35. Which of the following findings is seen in red blood cells in Megaloblastic anemia ?
(A) Macropolycyte (B) Dohle bodies (C) Cabot rings (D) Dutcher body
Ans: (C).

36. Which among the following is an Ionotropic Receptor ?
(A) GABAA Receptor (B) D1 Receptor
(C) Muscarinic Receptor (D) D2 Receptor
Ans: (A).

37. Therapeutic Index is expressed as :


(A) LD50
       -------
       ED50


(B)  LD50×ED50 

(C) ED50
      --------
      LD50

(D) LD1
      ........
      ED99

Ans: (A).

38. Acute development of tolerance after rapid and repeated administration of drugs at short
intervals is :
(A) Tachyphylaxis (B) Idiosyncrasy
(C) Cross tolerance (D) Metabolic tolerance
Ans: (A).

39. In which phase of clinical trial pharmacological evaluation of the new drug is performed on
healthy volunteers ?
(A) Phase III (B) Phase II (C) Phase I (D) Phase IV
Ans: (C).

40. Alcoholic extracts of plant drugs are called :
(A) Elixirs (B) Tinctures (C) Emulsion (D) Linctus
Ans: (B).

41. Choose the best dietary source of Vitamin C from the following :
(A) Meat (B) Milk (C) Citrus fruits (D) Egg
Ans: (C).

42. The protein digesting enzyme present in the stomach :
(A) Cathepsin (B) Chymotrypsin (C) Pepsin (D) Trypsin
Ans: (C).

43. The sugar of milk :
(A) Galactose (B) Lactose (C) Maltose (D) Sucrose
Ans: (B).

44. Tetany is manifested in :
(A) Respiratory alkalosis (B) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(C) Lactic acidosis (D) Respiratory acidosis
Ans: (A).

45. One of the following test is not useful to assess kidney function :
(A) Plasma Urea (B) Plasma Cretinine
(C) Plasma Creatine (D) Plasma Cystatin
Ans: (C).

46. Which of the following bacterial cultures show red fluorescence when exposed to UV light ?
(A) Bacteriodes fragilis (B) Porphyromonas gingivalis
(C) Prevotella melanogenica (D) Fusobacterium nucleatum
Ans: (C).

47. Which is the causative agent of Dental caries ?
(A) Streptococcus mutans (B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Enterococcus (D) Streptococcus agalactiae
Ans: (A).

48. Mechanism of Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is :
(A) Transformation (B) Conjugation (C) Transduction (D) Mutation
Ans: (D).

49. Which of the following viral markers is first to appear in blood after infection with
Hepatitis B virus ?
(A) HBs Ag (B) HBe Ag
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
 Ans: (A).

50. Hard chancre is characteristic of :
(A) Primary syphilis (B) Secondary syphilis
(C) Tertiary syphilis (D) None of the above
Ans: (A).

51. Electric pulp tests are known to be unreliable in young permanent teeth, because :
(A) late development of dentinal tubular fluid dynamics
(B) the relatively late development of A delta fibres
(C) the late development of Tome’s fibres
(D) pain threshold is inconsistent in children
Ans: (B).

52. In SI/STA Classification of dental caries; SI 1 is applied to :
(A) Pit and Fissure caries (B) Proximal Surface Caries
(C) Root Caries (D) Smooth Surface Caries
Ans: (A).

53. C-factor of class I cavity is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Ans: (C).

54. What does the term SCAP in an immature, permanent tooth denote ?
(A) surgical closure of apical foramen
(B) a unique population of dental mesenchymal stem cells
(C) retrograde apical sealing technique
(D) apical barrier apexification procedure
Ans: (B).

55. The angle the blade makes with the central longitudinal axis of the endodontic file is
called :
(A) Cutting Angle (B) Rake Angle
(C) Clearance Angle (D) Helix Angle
Ans: (D).

56. The extent of facial and lingual cervical contours for maxillary teeth from the CEJ is
approximately :
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1.0 mm (C) 1.5 mm (D) 2.0 mm
Ans: (A).

57. Who first introduced the term “Dead tracts” in dentin ?
(A) Anders Retzius (B) Von Ebner (C) Wilfred Fish (D) K. Kawasaki
 Ans: (C).

58. How many teeth are seen in the Orthopantomogram (OPG) of a 6 months old child ?
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 34
Ans: (D).

59. RANK-RANKL-OPG signaling pathway is important in regulating the differentiation and
activation of which cells ?
(A) Osteoblasts (B) Osteoclasts (C) T-Lymphocytes (D) B-Lymphocytes
Ans: (B).

60. Which non-keratinocyte has desmosomal attachment with adjacent cells ?
(A) Merkel cells (B) Mast cells (C) Melanocytes (D) Langerhans cells
Ans: (A).

61. Postzygotic mutation of GNAS1 gene in a somatic cell leads to the formation of :
(A) Pagets Disease (B) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
(C) Fibrous Dysplasia (D) Ectodermal Dysplasia
Ans: (C).

62. The gene for the production of Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (Factor XI) is located on :
(A) Chromosome X (B) Chromosome Y
(C) Chromosome 6 (D) Chromosome 4
Ans: (D).

63. Congenital unilateral ptosis, with rapid elevation of the ptotic eyelid occurring on movement
of the mandible to the contralateral side is called :
(A) Marcus Gunn Syndrome (B) Marin Amat Syndrome
(C) Horner’s Syndrome (D) Gorham’s Syndrome
Ans: (A).

64. In OLEP Staging system for Oral leukoplakia, which one of the following lesion is included
in Stage III ?
(A) L1P0 (B) L1P1 (C) L2P0 (D) L3P1
Ans: (B).

65. Which is the most common salivary neoplasm arising from an odontogenic cyst ?
(A) Acinic Cell Carcinoma (B) Adeno Carcinoma
(C) Mucoepidemoid Carcinoma (D) Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma
Ans: (C).

66. Open bites, associated with craniofacial syndromes is a deviation from normal in :
(A) Vertical plane (B) Horizontal plane
(C) Transverse plane (D) Occlusal plane
 Ans: (A).

67. Highest form of clinical evidence in hierarchy of quality that exists to guide clinical decision
is :
(A) Randomized control trials (B) Retrospective study
(C) Meta analysis (D) Prospective study
Ans: (C).

68. Among the following which tooth calcification is commonly associated with assessment of
skeletal maturity ?
(A) Maxillary central incisor (B) Mandibular canine
(C) Maxillary first molar (D) Mandibular first molar
Ans: (B).

69. The personality considered as forerunner of rapid maxillary expander is :
(A) Norman Kingsley (B) Vigo Andresen
(C) Hyrax (D) Emerson C Angell
Ans: (D).

70. Which among the following techniques cannot enhance the rate of tooth movement ?
(A) Application of vibration to tooth
(B) Application of heat to teeth and alveolar bone
(C) Application of light to alveolar process
(D) Application of ultrasound to teeth and surroundings
Ans: (B).

71. Genetic theory of Growth was put forward by :
(A) Brodie in 1941 (B) Pertovic in 1974
(C) Moss in 1962 (D) Sicher in 1955
Ans: (A).

72. In cephalometrics, pterygoid vertical plane (PTV) is :
(A) Line through Nasion (N) perpendicular to PH plane
(B) Line perpendicular to FH plane through Pt point
(C) Tangent to inferior border of Mandible through Pt point
(D) Line parallel to Pterygoid process
Ans: (B).

73. Which is not a mixed Dentition Analysis ?
(A) Huckaba’s Analysis (B) Ashley Hower’s Analysis
(C) Hixon and Old father Method (D) Tanaka and Johnston Analysis
 Ans: (B).

74. Kinectic Cavity Preparation :
(A) is Painless
(B) there is no vibration or pressure to cause microfracture that weakens tooth
(C) local anesthesia is always needed
(D) works quietly
Question deleted.

75. Which is not a complication associated with stainless steel crown ?
(A) Crown tilt (B) Inhalation or Ingestion
(C) Interproximal ledge (D) Premature contacts well tolerated by child
Ans: (D).

76. Collimators are made up of :
(A) Tungsten (B) Molybdenum (C) Copper (D) Lead
Ans: (D).

77. Cystic, keratin filled nodules seen along the mid palatine raphae :
(A) Bohn’s nodules (B) Lateral periodontal cyst
(C) Epstein pearls (D) Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst
Ans: (C).

78. Herpangina is caused by :
(A) Coxsackie virus (B) Cytomegalovirus
(C) Herpes virus (D) None
Ans: (A).

79. Restrainer in developing solution :
(A) Potassium bromide (B) Sodium sulfite
(C) Sodium hydroxide (D) Potassium hydroxide
Ans: (A).

80. Dimension of occlusal film :
(A) 50 mm × 75 mm (B) 57 mm × 76 mm
(C) 55 mm × 75 mm (D) 50 mm × 76 mm
Ans: (B).

81. Which among the following study designs is best suited for estimation of relative risk ?
(A) Cross sectional study (B) Cohort study
(C) Case control study (D) Randomized control trial
Ans: (B).

82. Each study subject also serves as a control in :
(A) Concurrent parallel trial (B) Cohort study
(C) Quasi experimental study (D) Cross over trial
Ans: (D).

83. Which of the following is the most cost effective technique for prevention of caries ?
(A) Community water fluoridation
(B) Use of fluoride dentifrice
(C) Professional application of fluoride varnish
(D) Knutson’s technique
Ans: (A).

84. Identify the third generation chemical plaque control agent from the following :
(A) Sangunarine (B) Phenols (C) Chlorhexidine (D) Delmopinol
Ans: (D).

85. Incidence can be obtained from :
(A) Cross sectional study (B) Case Control study
(C) Longitudinal study (D) Ecological study
Ans: (C).

86. The predominance of plasma cells is thought to be a primary characteristic of :
(A) Advanced lesion (B) Early lesion
(C) Established lesion (D) Initial lesion
Ans: (C).

87. The cytokeratins which are expressed in the junctional epithelium are :
(A) K4 and K13 (B) K5 and K14 (C) K6 and K16 (D) K1 and K2
Ans: (B).

88. The technique that surgically removes the pocket wall is :
(A) Undisplaced flap (B) Modified Widman flap
(C) Papilla preservation flap (D) Conventional flap
Ans: (A).

89. Which of the following electronic probe is capable of locating the cementoenamel junction ?
(A) Interprobe (B) Foster Miller probe
(C) Periprobe (D) Florida probe
Ans: (B).

90. Which of the following is a sulcular brushing technique ?
(A) Modified Stillman technique (B) Fones technique
(C) Charters technique (D) Bass technique
Ans: (D).

91. Amount of Lignocaine present in 2cc of 2% LA solution is :
(A) 40 mg (B) 20 mg (C) 400 mg (D) 0.4 mg
Ans: (A).

92. The pathognomonic sign of fracture mandible is :
(A) Deranged occlusion (B) Displacement
(C) Open Bite (D) Sublingual Hematoma
Ans: (D).

93. The direction of first force applied in extracting upper anterior tooth is :
(A) Rotational (B) Buccal (C) Apical (D) Palatal
Ans: (C).

94. Sodium metabisulphite is added to local anaesthetic solution as :
(A) Vasoconstrictor
(B) Principal active ingredient
(C) Anti oxidant to protect vasoconstrictor
(D) Antifungal Agent
Ans: (C).

95. Which of the following is the drug of choice in Anaphylactic shock ?
(A) Sodium Nitroprusside (B) Adrenalin
(C) Phenergan (D) Deriphylline
Ans: (B).

96. Gypsum is :
(A) CaSO4.2H2O (B) (CaSO4)2.H2O (C) H2SO4 (D) CaSO4
Ans: (A).

97. Freeway space =
(A) occlusal vertical dimension + rest vertical dimension
(B) occlusal vertical dimension − rest vertical dimension
(C) rest vertical dimension − occlusal vertical dimension
(D) rest vertical dimension
Ans: (C).

98. In RPD, border of maxillary major connector should be at least __________ away from the
gingival crevice of teeth.
(A) 5 mm (B) 6 mm (C) 6 cm (D) 5 cm
Ans: (B).

99. In tooth preparation for fixed partial dentures and crowns, bevel should be prepared in :
(A) non functional cusp (B) functional cusp
(C) in both cusps (D) none
Ans: (B).

100. Type of minor connector in removable partial denture that is not required to be rigid :
(A) connects denture base to major connector
(B) join clasp assembly to major connector
(C) join indirect retainer to major connector
(D) approach arm for Bar type clasp
Ans: (D).

SOLVED PAPER OF HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL TEACHER-COMPUTER SCIENCE-2018

SOLVED PAPER OF HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL TEACHER-COMPUTER SCIENCE-KERALA HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION –EXAM HELD ON 01.02.2018.



























1. #define AND &&
#define OR !!
#define LE <=
#define GE >=
main()
{
char ch=‘D’ :
if ((ch GE 65 AND ch LE 90) OR (ch GE 97 AND ch LE 122))
printf(“alphabet”);
else
printf(“not an alphabets”):
}
(A) Compilation error (B) Not an alphabet
(C) Alphabet (D) None of the above

Ans: (C) Alphabet

2. main()
{
static char * s[] = {“ice”, “green”, “core”, “please”}:
static char **ptr[] = {s+3, s+2, s+1,s}:
char ***p=ptr;
printf(“%s\n”, **++p);
printf(“%s\n”, *--*++p+3);
printf(“%s\n”, *p[–2]+3);
printf(“%s\n”,p[–1][–1]+1);
}
(A) ice        (B) core         (C) please (D) None
      plea              ase                 core
       gr                reen                   gr

  Ans:(B).

3. main()
{
int k=35,z;
K=func1(k=func1(k=func1(k)));
printf(“k=%d”,k);
}
Funct1(k)
int k:
{
K++;
return(k):
}
(A) 35 (B) 37 (C) 38 (D) 40

Ans: (C)38

4. main ()
{
int j=1;
while (j<=255);
printf(“%c%d\n”, j,j);
j++;
}
}
(A) 255 (B) 255, 255 (C) No output (D) 256

Ans: (C)No output.

5. main()
{
int a=500, b=100,c;
if (!a>=400)
b=300;
c=200;
printf(“b=%d c=%d”,b,c);
}
(A) b=100, c=400 (B) b=100, c=300
(C) b=100, c=200 (D) None of the above
Ans: (C)

6. Multiple inheritance in java can be achieved by :
(A) interface (B) polymorphism (C) abstraction (D) encapsulation
Ans: (A)

7. Which is the base class of all classes in java ?
(A) system.lang (B) class.object (C) java.lang.object (D) none of the above

Ans: (C).

8. class output
{
public static void main (string args[ ])
{ string Buffer sb=new string Buffer (“Hello”);
Sb.delete (0,2);
system.out.println(c);
}
(A) He (B) Hel (C) lo (D) llo
Ans: (D).

9. Which of the interface contain all the method used for handling thread related operations in
java ?
(A) Runnable interface (B) Math interface
(C) System interface (D) Thread handling interface
Ans: (D)

10. Which of the package contains abstract keyword ?
(A) java.lang (B) java.util (C) java.io (D) java.system

Ans: (A)

11. A member function which initializes data member of an object in :
(A) Destructor (B) Constructor (C) Inline function (D) Friend function
Ans: (B).

12. A C++ key word, which, when used inside a member function of a class, represents a pointer
to the particular class object that invoked it :
(A) * (B) this (C) ? (D) None
Ans: (B).

13. Which of the following is a non linear data structure ?
(A) Tree (B) Array
(C) Linked list (D) None of the above
Ans: (A).

14. Which of the following is NOT a method for performing amortized analysis of algorithms ?
(A) Aggregate method (B) Accounting method
(C) Potential method (D) None of the above
Ans: (D).

15. 0-1 Knapsack problem can be solved by :
(A) Greedy method (B) Dynamic programming method
(C) Divide and conquer method (D) None of the above
Ans: (B).

16. Which is NOT a collision resolution technique in Hashing ?
(A) Chaining (B) Linear probing
(C) Quadratic Probing (D) None of the above
Ans: (D).

17. If any NP complete problem is in P class, then :
(A) P=NP (B) P!=NP
(C) P=NP (D) None of the above
Ans: (A).

18. Which of the following problem is NOT NP-complete ?
(A) Hamiltonian cycle problem (B) Clique problem
(C) Travelling-salesman problem (D) None of the above
Ans: (D).

19. The running time of Kruska’ls algorithm for a graph G=(V, E) for finding
Minimum–spanning–tree is :
(A) O(E log2 V) (B) O(E+V log2 V)
(C) O(E2) (D) O(V2)
Ans: (A).

20. The data structure used in breadth–first–search (BST) is :
(A) Stack (B) Queue
(C) B–Tree (D) None of the above
Ans: (B).

21. Strassen’s algorithm for multiplying n×n matrices runs in :
(A) O(n2) time (B) O(n3) time (C) O(2n) time (D) O(n2.81) time
Ans: (D).

22. The postfix representation of the expression (a+b*c)+((d*e+f)*g) is :
(A) abc*+de*f+g*+ (B) ab+c*de*f+g+*
(C) ab+c*de*f+g*+ (D) abc*+def*+g*+
Ans: (A)

23. The worst case time complexity of merge sort is :
(A) O(n2) (B) O(n log n) (C) O(n3) (D) O(2n)
Ans: (B).

24. A set of n>=0 disjoint trees :
(A) Tree (B) Forest (C) B Tree (D) All of the above
Ans: (B).

25. Which of the following is a linear data structures ?
(A) Array (B) Linked list
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Ans: (C).

26. The worst case time complexity of Quick sort is :
(A) O(n2) (B) O(n log n) (C) O(n3) (D) O(2n)
Ans: (A).

27. Which of the following data structure is frequently used to implement priority queue ?
(A) Stack (B) Heap
(C) Treap (D) None of the above
Ans: (B).

28. A list in which contain nodes of different types :
(A) Homogenous list (B) Heterogeneous list
(C) Doubly linked list (D) None of the above
Ans: (B).

29. An ordered list in which insertion and deletion of nodes are made at one end ?
(A) Deque (B) Queue
(C) Stack (D) None of the above
Ans: (C).

30. A matrix whose most of the elements are zeroes :
(A) sparse matrix (B) dense matrix
(C) square matrix (D) none of the above
Ans: (A).

31. Which of the following is a self balancing binary search tree ?
(A) B– Tree (B) AVL Tree
(C) B+ Tree (D) None of the above
Ans: (B).

32. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12000 frames per minute
with each frame carrying an average of 10,000 bits. What is the throughput of this
network ?
(A) 22 Mbps (B) 2 Mbps (C) 10 Mbps (D) 100 Mbps
Ans: (B)

33. A system is using NRZ-l to transfer 10-Mbps data. What is the average signal rate ?
(A) 500 Kbaud (B) 1000 MHz (C) 500 MHz (D) 1000 Kbaud
Ans: (A).

34. What is the minimum required bandwidth to send data at 1-Mbps rate using Manchester
Encoding ?
(A) 10 MHz (B) 2 MHz (C) 5 MHz (D) 1 MHz
Ans: (D)

35. To send 3 bits data at a time at a bit rate of 3 Mbps with a carrier frequency of 10 MHz
calculate the baud rate and bandwidth :
(A) 10 Mbaud and 10 MHz (B) 2 Mbaud and 2 MHz
(C) 1 Mbaud and 8 MHz (D) None of these
Ans: (C).

36. Eight channels each with a 100-kHz bandwidth are to be multiplexed together. What is the
minimum bandwidth of the link if there is a need for a guard band of 10 kHz between
channels to prevent interference ?
(A) 540 kHz (B) 870 kHz (C) 1020 kHz (D) 1080 kHz
Ans: (B)

37. The digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into high-rate
one :
(A) TDM (B) FDM (C) CDM (D) none of these
Ans: (A)

38. RG-59 category cables are used for :
(A) Telephone (B) LAN
(C) Cable TV networks (D) None of these
Ans: (C).

39. The bit oriented protocol for communication over point to point and multipoint links is :
(A) HDLC (B) Stop and wait protocol
(C) PPP (D) PAP
Ans: (A).

40. The service not provided by PPP is :
(A) network address configuration (B) authentication
(C) flow control (D) none of these
Ans: (C).

41. Encryption is done at :
(A) Presentation Layer (B) Application Layer
(C) Session Layer (D) Transport Layer
Ans: (A).

42. One channel carries all transmissions simultaneously in :
(A) TDMA (B) CDMA (C) FDMA (D) PDMA
Ans: (B).

43. The IEEE standard for Wifi is :
(A) 802.4 (B) 802.1 (C) 802.2 (D) 802.11
Ans: D.

44. An example for cell switched network is :
(A) SONET (B) ATM (C) UPSR (D) None of these
Ans: (B).

45. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using :
(A) TDMA and packet switching (B) CDMA and packet switching
(C) TDMA and FDMA (D) FDMA and CDMA
Ans: (C).

46. UDP is a :
(A) Connectionless unreliable protocol
(B) Reliable and connection oriented protocol
(C) Connectionless reliable protocol
(D) Connection oriented unreliable protocol
Ans: (A).

47. SCTP is a __________ layer protocol.
(A) Session Layer (B) Application Layer
(C) DLL (D) Transport Layer
Ans: (D).

48. The result which operation contains all pairs of tuples from the two relations, regardless of
whether their attribute values match ?
(A) Join (B) Cartesian product
(C) Intersection (D) Set difference
Ans: (B).

49. The most commonly used operation in relational algebra for projecting a set of tuple from a
relation is :
(A) Join (B) Projection (C) Select (D) Union
Ans: (C).

50. For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of permitted values, called the __________ of
that attribute.
(A) Domain (B) Relation (C) Set (D) Schema
Ans: (A).

51. Managers salary details are hidden from employees. This is :
(A) Conceptual level data hiding (B) Physical level data hiding
(C) External level data hiding (D) None of these
Ans: (C).

52. In SR flip-flop, if S=R=1 then Q(t+1) will be :
(A) Q(t) (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) indeterminate state
Ans: (D).

53. If an encoder has 2n (or less) input lines. Then output line is :
(A) n/2 (B) n (C) 2n (D) n-1
Ans: (B).

54. The 10’s complements of 13250 is :
(A) 86740 (B) 86750 (C) 97850 (D) 97859
Ans: (B).

55. DeMorgan’s theorem says that a NOR gate is equivalent to __________ gate.
(A) Bubbled XOR (B) Bubbled AND (C) NOR (D) Bubbled NOR
Ans: (B).

56. AB+B((B+C')+B'C) can be simplified to :
(A) AB+BC (B) B+BC
(C) B+C (D) None of the above
Ans: (C).

57. The self complementing unweighted code is :
(A) 8421 (B) 2421 (C) Excess 3 (D) Gray code
Ans: (B).

58. In 8086 microprocessor the following has the highest priority among all the type of
interrupt :
(A) NM 1 (B) type 255 (C) over flow (D) Div 0
Ans: (A).

59. Which among the following is the maximum mod signal in 8085 ?
(A) DT/R' (B) HOLD (C) ALE (D) LOCK
Ans: (D).

60. INT2 in 8086 is :
(A) Single step interrupt (B) Non maskable interrupt
(C) Division by zero interrupt (D) Overflow interrupt
Ans: (B).

61. Which among the following is the programmable DMA controller in 8086 ?
(A) 8259 (B) 8257 (C) 8251 (D) 8250
Ans: (D).

62. In cyclomatic complexity, if E is the number of edges and N is the number of nodes, V(G), for
a flow graph is defined as :
(A) E-N+2 (B) E-N-1 (C) E+N-2 (D) E+N-1
Ans: (A).

63. Which among the following is the risk driven process model ?
(A) Prototyping (B) Spiral model
(C) Component based development (D) Waterfall model
Ans: (B).

64. Which testing method is normally used as the acceptance test for a software system ?
(A) Unit testing (B) Integration testing
(C) Functional testing (D) Regression testing
Ans: (B).

65. Application like Banking and Reservation require which type of operating system :
(A) Hard real time (B) Soft real time
(C) Real time (D) Time sharing
Ans: (B).

66. Preemptive scheduling is the strategy of temporally suspending a running process :
(A) To avoid collision (B) When it request i/o
(C) Before the CPU time slice expires (D) None of the above
Ans: (C).

67. Time for the disk, rotate to the start of the desired sector is known as :
(A) Seek time (B) Transfer time (C) Latency time (D) Access time
Ans: (C).

68. Mutual exclusion problem occurs between :
(A) Process that share resources
(B) Process use not the same resources
(C) Two disjoint process that do not interact
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A).

69. PNG stands for :
(A) Packet network graphics (B) Portable network graphics
(C) Protocol for network graphic (D) None of the above
Ans: (B)

70. The maintenance activity to find and fix error during operation of error is :
(A) adaptive maintenance (B) corrective maintenance
(C) perfective maintenance (D) preventive maintenance
Ans: (B).

71. Which method uses small increments with minimum planning and iterations are short time
frames ?
(A) Water fall model (B) Spiral model
(C) Agile model (D) Prototype model
Ans:(B).

72. Telnet is a :
(A) Remote login (B) Television network
(C) Network of telephone (D) None of the above
Ans: (A).

73. Trends to outsource IT functions t other countries is known as :
(A) Outer outsourcing (B) External outsourcing
(C) Foreign outsourcing (D) Offshore outsourcing
Ans: (D).

74. Which of the following method of channelization are used for mobile data internet
working ?
(A) Time division multiple access (B) Frequency division multiple access
(C) Code division multiple access (D) All of the above
Ans: (D).

75. Honey pot is an example for :
(A) Security auditing software (B) Encryption-decryption software
(C) Intrusion-detection software (D) Virus
Ans: (C).

76. ‘Hibernate’ in Windows XP/Windows 7 means :
(A) Shutdown the computer without closing the running application
(B) Shutdown the computer terminating all running applications
(C) Restart the computer
(D) Restart the computer in safe mode
Ans: (A).

77. The UNIX Shell is :
(A) A command line interpreter (B) Set of user commands
(C) A GUI interface (D) All of the above
Ans: (A).

78. If every non key attribute is functionally depend on primary key, then the relation will be :
(A) First normal form (B) Second normal form
(C) Third normal form (D) Fourth normal form
Ans: (C).

79. An attribute of one table is matching the primary key of another table, is known as :
(A) Secondary key (B) Foreign key
(C) Candidate key (D) Composite key
Ans: (B).

80. In relational model, tuple is equivalent to :
(A) Record (B) Table (C) File (D) Field
Ans: (A).

81. Who among the following leaders is not associated with the formation of the Congress Socialist
Party in 1934 ?
(A) Sardar Vallabhai Patel (B) Jayaprakash Narayanan
(C) Achyuth Patwardhan (D) R.M. Lohya
Ans: (A).

82. The code name “Operation Barbarosa” is associated with the following countries in the Second
World War :
(A) England and France (B) France and Germany
(C) Germany and Soviet Union (D) U.S.A. and Japan
Ans: (C).

83. Who among the following is the author of “Prince of the folly” ?
(A) Erasmus (B) Machiavelly (C) Thomas More (D) Boccassio
Ans: (A).

84. Which of the following social reformer of Kerala founded the “Sadhu Jana Sangam” ?
(A) Mannath Padmanabhan (B) Vagbhatanantha
(C) Ayyankali (D) Pandit Karuppan
Ans: (C).

85. Which National leader of India is nicknamed as “Prince of workers” ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) Gopalakrishna Gokhale
(C) Bal Gangadhara Tilak (D) Surendra Natha Bannarjee
Ans: (B).

86. “New India” is the Newspaper published by :
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Annie Beasant
(C) Syed Ahammed Khan (D) Lala Lajpath Rai
Ans: (B).

87. The Indian Independence Act Passed by the British Parliament in :
(A) August 14, 1947 (B) July 1, 1947
(C) February 12, 1947 (D) July 18, 1947
Ans: (D).

88. Which social reformer of Kerala started the weekly “Prabhodakam” ?
(A) Mannath Padmanabhan (B) Muhammed Abdul Rahman
(C) Kesari Balakrishna Pillai (D) Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai
Ans: (C).

89. Which of the following state of India is called the “Botanist paradise” ?
(A) Assam (B) Kashmir
(C) Sikkim (D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (C).

90. Who among the following ruler built the famous “Charminar” ?
(A) Firus Shah Tuglak (B) Shahjahan
(C) Aurangazeb (D) Quli Qutub Shah
Ans: (D).

91. Which among the following is India’s National river ?
(A) Indus (B) Ganga (C) Brahmaputhra (D) Narmada
Ans: (B).

92. Swaraj Party was the outcome of which of the following incident ?
(A) Chauri-Chaura (B) Quit India
(C) Simon Commision (D) Bardoli Satyagraha
Ans: (A).

93. Who is called the “Lincoln of Kerala” ?
(A) Pandit Karuppan (B) Dr. Palpu
(C) Sahodharan Ayyappan (D) Poikayil Yohannan
Ans: (A).

94. In the constitution of India article 32 deals with :
(A) Writ (B) Equal pay for equal work
(C) Panchayath raj system (D) Uniform civil code
Ans: (A).

 95. “Panmana Asramam” is related to :
(A) Kumarasenan (B) Chattambi Swamikal
(C) Vagbadanandhan (D) Vaikunda Swamikal
Ans: (B).

96. Who among the following is the President of Karachi Session of INC in 1931 ?
(A) Sardar Vallabhai Patel (B) Mothilal Nehru
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Annie Besant
Ans: (A).

97. Which among the following year the famous Malayalam historical novel “Martandavarma”
published ?
(A) 1901 (B) 1906 (C) 1891 (D) 1896
Ans: (C).

98. In which of the following year last Mamankam was held at Thirunavaya ?
(A) 1775 (B) 1780 (C) 1792 (D) 1802
Ans: (A).

99. Which ruler of Cochin started “Thrissur Pooram” ?
(A) Swathi Thirunal (B) Marthanda Varma
(C) Sakthan Thampuran (D) Sree Chithira Thiruna
Ans: (C).

100. Who among the following raised the slogan “Inquilab Zindabad” for the first time ?
(A) Surya Sen (B) Bhagat Singh
(C) V.D. Savarkar (D) Chandrasekhar Azad
Ans: (B).