SOLVED PAPER OF ACCOUNT AND AUDIT IN THE PANCHAYAT RULES (PAPER III) / SOLVED PAPER OF PANCHAYAT TEST-PAPER III-JANUARY 2014

 

 

 

1.    Funds for maintenance expenditure fall under:
Category C

2.    The women component required in Social Audit Committee in LSGIs is:
½ of the total strength.

3.    For the purpose of the calculation T.A, Grama Panchayat members are considered as:
Class II (a).

4.    From which date was the guidelines for the procurement of Good and Services in LSGIs introduced:
8-11-2010

5.    What type of a committee meeting is required to be held in a Panchayath for considering a draft budget?
Special meeting.

6.    Draft budget of a Panchayath shall be presented before the Panchayath Committee for approval by:
The Vice President.

7.    What is the rate of centage charge payable, if a Grama Panchayat obtains Technical Sanction from a Municipal Engineer?
0.75% of the approved estimate amount.

8.    ……..means a quantitative estimate of programmes and activities expressed in terms of money in respect of Incomes, Expenditures, Liabilities and Assets anticipated for the relevant financial year.
Budget.

9.    ………..… means a document which serves as an authorization for any financial transaction.
Voucher.

10.    Computer generated cash receipts shall be issued, where accounting is through………... software.
Saankhya.
11.    ……….means all articles and materials (other than cash and documents) which come into the possession of a Government Servant for use in the public service.
Stores.

12.    …………. is the authority empowered to accord Administrative Sanction for the purchase of items of stores exceeding Rs.10000 but below Rs.20000, other than those included in Appendix II of the Store purchase Rules:
The director of Printing and Stationary.

13.    As per Store Purchase Rules tender should be invited, if the estimated value of stores to be purchased is …………..or above.
Rs.20000.

14.    As per Store Purchase Rules ……….tender system may be adopted whenever the estimated value of the order to be given is less than Rs.20000/-?
Limited Tender.

15.    What is the minimum percentage of EMD required for the supply of stores?
1%.

16.    Government purchase policy generally permits a price performance up to 15% or even up to ……….. % or even higher in special circumstances for indigenous products over imported stores.
25

17.    All purchases costing below …………. will be exempted from the requirement of security deposit.
Rs.5000/-

18.    In the case of purchases costing above…………the purchasing officer shall forward a draft agreement to the firm along with the supply order directing that the consignment need be sent only after executing agreement.
Rs.5000/-

19.    What is the period up to which an agreement related to stores purchased, other than plant and machinery needs be kept undestroyed?
10 years.

20.    In the case of articles which cannot be stocked conveniently in the departmental store, the system of ……….. contract should be adopted.
Running.

21.    What shall be the strength of a beneficiary committee formed for the execution of public work?
7 to 15.

22.    Which standing committee deals with matters relating to public work?
Standing committee for Development.

23.    A successful bidder on a tendered public work is bound to deposit a security at the rate of ………of the PAC.
5%.

24.    Who is liable to inform a Grama Sabha the summary of public work executed in the Block Panchayat of the area?
The Block Panchayat member concerned.

25.    The minimum rate required as EMD in public works taken by PRI s is:
2 ½ % of the PAC.

26.    The estimates prepared for public works shall be in the form prescribed in :
The Public works code.

27.    As far as possible 5% of the works, the estimate of which exceeds ……….. shall be test checked by Executive Engineer.
Rs.6 Lakhs.

28.    What is the time limit within the final payment shall be made to a contractor of a public work after its measurement?
2 weeks.

29.    What is the maximum mobilization advance payable to the convener of a beneficiary committee to commence a public work?
25% of the estimate cost not exceeding Rs.100000.

30.    Public works are tendered in Grama Panchayats on the order of :
President.

31.    A preliminary agreement shall be enclosed along with tender for public works, when estimate exceeds:
Rs.50000/-

32.    When the estimate of a public work does not exceed ……… it can be arranged by short tender quotation.
Rs.5000.

33.    What is the procedure to be followed when sufficient numbers of tenders are not received to a public work?
The work shall be retendered.

34.    When execution of public work does not need much skill, what mode shall be given priority?
Beneficiary committee.

35.    Meeting of beneficiaries for forming a beneficiary committee to take up and execute a public work is to be convened by:
The implementing officer.

36.    What is the procedure to be followed by a Grama Panchayat for purchasing furniture for Rs.40000 as per the Procurement procedures?
Limited Tender.

37.    How will the beneficiary committee for a LP school building maintenance work be formed?
The school PTA can be considered as a beneficiary committee.

38.    When was the guideline for procurement of Goods and Services in LSGIs introduced?
8-11-2010.

39.    As per the procurement guidelines what method of purchase should be adopted when a Grama Panchayat intends to purchase electrical goods for Rs.20000?
Local shopping.

40.    As per procurement guidelines what is the strength fixed for the Purchase committee of a Grama Panchayat?
9.

41.    Which of the following falls under debt head?
(A) Advance     (B) Interest    (C) Fine    (D) Librarycess.
Ans: Librarycess.
42.    Which is the mismatch among the following?
(A) Supplementary nutrition-Anganvadi.
(B) Transferred Institution –Village Office
(C) Crop Incentive-Krishibhabhavan.
(D) Palliative care-PHC
Ans: Transferred Institution –Village Office

43.    Name the schedule in which the functions of Grama Panchayat are enlisted in the Kerala Panchayat Raj Act, 1994?
Third Schedule.

44.    Pre-metric hostels for SC students are transferred to ……… Panchayat.
Block Panchayat.

45.    Who is the authority to grant casual leave to Agricultural Officer of Krishibhavan?
Grama Panchayat President.

46.    The Government officers and employees lent to Panchayats shall be considered as …………as per rules.
Panchayat Employees.

47.    The tender validity in respect of quotations for the procurement of goods by LSGIs is generally ……. Days.
30.

48.    What is the notice time required, as per the procurement guidelines in the case of a limited tender?
14 days.

49.    Which of the following statement is the one you agree with, in relation to procurement of goods in Grama Panchayats?
(A) Specifications in the tender notice shall be based on relevant characteristics.
(B) Reference to brand names shall be avoided in the notice.
(C) A and B are wrong
(D) A and B are right.
Ans: (D) A and B are right.


50.    The procurement Team establish in every Grama Panchayat is led by:
Secretary.

51.    Which among the following is a punishment that cannot be imposed by a Panchayat on employees working under it?
(A) Recovery of amount from salary
(B) Temporary withholding of promotion.
(C) Increment barring with cumulative effect
(D) Increment barring without cumulative effect.
Ans: Increment barring with cumulative effect.

52.    The transfer if functions, functionaries and funds by Government to LSGIs is generally termed as:
Devolution.

53.    What is the quorum of the Managing Committee for public Health Institutions?
½ of the total strength.

54.    ……… means a group of subsidiary accounts, the sum of the balances of which is equal to the balance of control accounts in the General Ledger.
Sub-ledger.

55.    The responsibility of exercising budgetary control in a Grama Panchayat shall lie with:
The secretary and Accountant.

56.    Which is the institution in which the Panchayat fund cannot be deposited?
Post office.

57.    What is the software deployed in Grama Panchayats for accounting purposes?
Saankhya.

58.    The business hours of cash transaction in Grama Panchayats shall be………….on all working days.
10AM-3 PM.

59.    What does S.212 of the Kerala Panchayat Raj Ac, 1994 deal with?
Panchayat Fund.

60.    Who is duty bound to get bank/treasury statement at the end of each month and to confirm that remittances have been fully credited?
Accountant.

61.    Which one among the following is a lapsable fund?
(A) Category D Fund    (B) Category A Fund    (C) Category B fund    (D) Category C Fund.
Ans: (C) Category B fund.

62.    What is the form of the bill used to draw Category A fund from treasury?
T.R.59 B

63.    Who is to place the monthly statement of receipts and payments before the Panchayat Committee, every month?
T.R.59 B

64.    What is the time………..limit with in which a rectification report shall be given by a Panchayat to the auditor?
Within 2 months from the date of receipt of the audit report.

65.    The period of validity of a tender is generally:
90 days.

66.    The T.A. bills of Panchayat members are to be scrutinized and passed by:
The Panchayat President.

67.    The limit up to which a president of Grama Panchayat can incur expenditure on an item of recognised contingencies at a time is :
Rs.5000/-

68.    When a misappropriation of Panchayat fund is discovered by the secretary, to whom shall be report the same?
President Police Government and the auditor.

69.    Public works up to which amount can be executed through Beneficiary committees?
15 lakhs.

70.    Which is the authority competent to accept tender on a public work in a Panchayat?
Panchayat Committee

71.    The accounting system followed in Panchayats is :
Double entry system of book keeping.

72.    …………….means the annual financial statements and other statements prescribed under Rule 65 of Kerala Panchayat Raj (Accounts) Rules, 2011?
Annual report.
73.    What is the capital expenditure?
Expenditure intended to benefit future period.

74.    Of the following which is not a book of Accounts maintained in Grama Panchayats?
(A) Cash Book    (B) Bank Book    (C) Asset Register    (D) Journal Book.
Ans: Asset Register.

75.    Offering, giving, receiving or soliciting directly or indirectly of anything of value, to influence improperly the actions of another party constitutes:
Corrupt practice.

76.    Entries which do not involve cash or bank/treasury accounts shall be recorded in the:
Journal Book.

77.    What shall be indicated on a receipt issued towards receipt of cheque/demand draft by Grama Panchayats?
Subject to realization.

78.    Tangible objects or intangible rights owned by a Panchayat or designed or transferred to a Panchayat and carrying probable future benefits are called:
Assets.

79.    Each Ex officio Secretary/Implementing Officer of a Grama Panchayat shall furnish to the Secretary a statement of expenditure incurred by him out of the allotment received by him before the……….. of the subsequent month.
5th

80.    Bills and Vouchers, in original, are required to be attached to bills, only if the expenditure exceeds:
Rs.500.

81.    What is the condition in which Cash Book and Bank Book are maintained in the same registry?
When the account books are maintained manually.

82.    Who is duty bound to ensure the proper remittance of Cash, Cheques and demand drafts to the treasury/bank?
Accountant.

83.    When was the new Accounting System introduced as per G.O. (MS) No.83/2011/LSGD dt 28-03-2011 come into force in Grama Panchayats?
1-04-2011.

84.    Closing of ledger accounts shall be carried out at the end of :
Every month.

85.    Of the following, which procedure needs be carried out only at the end of every financial year in Grama Panchayats?
Physical verification and reconciliation of stock.

86.    The Secretary of Grama Panchayat shall place a statement of receipts and payment before the Standing Committee for Finance not later than………. of the subsequent month:
10th

87.    What is the time limit prescribed for the submission of the Annual Financial Statement of Grama Panchayats to the auditor, as per G.O(MS) No.83/2011/LSGD dt 28/03/2011?
Before 15th May of the succeeding year.

88.    Who is competent to authorize payment from Panchayat Fund?
President.

89.    What is the procedure to be followed when a cheque is cancelled?
It shall be retained with counterfoil.

90.    When shall the secretary publish the Annual report under S.215 (15) of the Kerala Panchayat Raj Act, 1994?
Not later than 10th November of the succeeding year.

91.    ………..is responsible for submitting the A.F.S to the Audit, in respect of Grama Panchayat?
Secretary.

92.    Who is the State Performance Audit Authority?
The Secretary, LSGD.

93.    Which authority is entrusted to consolidate the annual budgets of Grama Panchayats in a district?
The District Panchayat.

94.    Performance Audit shall be conducted in ………..months.
3

95.    ……….does not form part of Panchayats Fund?
Security deposit.

96.    The time limit for issuing a surcharge certificate is …………. from the date of the irregular expenditure.
4 years.

97.    Which is the authority to conduct a special audit in a Grama Panchayat?
Local Fund Audit.

98.    The time limit within which the Auditor shall return the AFS. Submitted if found defective is :
One week.

99.    The State performance Audit Officer is appointed by:
The Government.

100.    A charged amount is recovered from the liable as if it were:
Arrears of land revenue.

SOLVED PAPER OF KERALA SERVICE RULES (HIGHER) EXAM (ACCOUNT TEST (HIGHER) – PART II - PAPER – III)

SOLVED PAPER OF KERALA SERVICE RULES (HIGHER) EXAM (ACCOUNT TEST (HIGHER) – PART II - PAPER – III) HELD ON 05-03-2013.

1.    Question Deleted.

2.    All physically handicapped employees eligible to claim conveyance allowance are eligible for how many days of leave or treatment of illness connected with the physical handicap of the employee:
15 days.

3.    A Government Servant is deputed by Government to participate in a Civil service tournament as a member of the team. Regarding the period spent for participation in such a tournament, which among the following is true:
(A) The period excluding the time taken for to and fro journeys will be treated as duty.
    (B) The period would not be considered as duty but as leave with pay.
    (C) The period including the time taken for to and fro journeys will be treated as duty.
    (D) The period would not be considered as duty but as leave without pay.
Ans: (C) The period including the time taken for to and fro journeys will be treated as duty.

4.    If an officer who is suspended is fully exonerated:
He may be granted the full pay to which he would have been entitled had he not been suspended, along with any allowance he was in receipt of before his suspension.

5.    An officer who is not  authorized to travel by air but who performs a journey by air on tour, can draw:
Only the T.A to which he would have been entitled, had he travelled by rail or road 

6.    If an officer officiating in a post is appointed to a higher post on the advice of the public service commission, then:
His pay will be fixed as per rule 28A Part I KSR without the benefit of refixation.

7.    A Government servant who while on tour is allowed free lodging only at the expense of the Government ,Daily allowance (D.A) for him is :
(2/3) of the DA admissible to him.

8.     An officer thrown out of service for want of vacancy is again reappointed after a break to another post carrying the same time scale of pay and then is transferred to another place. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) His prior service alone shall be counted for the purpose of increment.
    (B) His prior service and joining time will be counted for the purpose of increment.
    (C) His joining time alone shall be counted for the purpose of increment.
    (D) His prior service and joining time will not be counted for the purpose of increment.
    Ans: (B) His prior service and joining time will be counted for the purpose of increment.

9.    In the case of erroneous promotion owing to factual error:
The order of promotion shall be cancelled and the officer will be brought to a    position he held, but for the erroneous promotion.

10.    If a temporary post  is created and is filled by a person who is already in the service,
regarding the fixation of pay which among the following is true?
(A) Pay shall be fixed with due regard to the previous performance of the person.
    (B) Pay shall be fixed giving the person an advance increment.
    (C) Pay shall be fixed at the minimum of the scale of pay of the temporary post.
    (D) Pay shall be fixed with due regard to the character and responsibility of the work.
Ans: (D) Pay shall be fixed with due regard to the character and responsibility of the work.

11.    Which among the following classes of officers should produce a medical certificate of health for appointment in Government service?
An officer recruited by the public service commission for appointment to ministerial service.

12.    Among the following, which kind of special pay is reckoned for the purpose of fixation of pay, on promotion to a higher post?
Special pay in lieu of higher time scale of pay.

13.    A block development officer whose monthly PTA is Rs.300 per month and the minimum number of days prescribed for tour in a month is 20 days. If he has travelled only 15 days in a month, his entitlement for PTA is:
225

14.    A Head Nurse drawing a pay of Rs.31,360 on time bound higher grade scale of pay of  18740-500-21240-560-24040-620-27140-680-29860-750-32860-820-33680 with date of next  increment on 1-03-12 was promoted as Nursing superintendent Grade II on Rs 18740 -500-21240-560-24040-620-27140-680-29860-750-32860-820-33680 w.e.f 15 -2 -2012. Her pay as1.03-2012 is:
32110.

15.     For state Government employees working in New Delhi, the maximum period of absence combining casual leave with Sundays and other authorized holidays is:
20 days.

16.    Next Below rule is a rule is a rule intended to protect the interest of a Government servant:
Who is working outside the ordinary line.

17.    A Grade I officer who retired from service on 31-3-2009 wants to accept a commercial employment as 1-05-2012, sanction is to be  obtained from:-
No sanction is required.

18.    During leave, an officer:
Cannot draw PCA.

19.    Question Deleted.

20.    An officer is transferred from Ernakulam to Kannur. After 8 months his wife, another Government servant is also transferred from Ernakulam to Kannur. Is she entitled to receive transfer T.A?
Transfer T.A. is admissible to her, since she is performing the journey to the same station after 6 months of transfer of her husband.

21.    Question Deleted.

22.    An officer on retirement desires to settle in Bangalore. He applies for Travelling Allowance to proceed to Bangalore upon his retirement. Which among the following statement is true regarding him:
(A) He is not entitled to receive T.A as on transfer.
(B) He is not entitled to receive T.A since his journey is to a station outside the state.
(C). He is entitled to receive T.A if the journey is performed within 2 years of his retirement.
(D) He is entitled to receive T.A if the journey is performed within 1 year of his retirement.
Ans: (D) He is entitled to receive T.A if the journey is performed within 1 year of his retirement.

23.    The maximum basic pension admissible to a State Government officer is :
29,920.

24.    In the case of enforced halt occurring en route on tour journeys due to blockade of roads on account of floods, the Government servant is entitled to:
¾ th daily allowance.

25.    An officer working at Nedumangad was transferred to Alappuzha. He was relieved on Friday 13th July 2012 afternoon. 14th is second Saturday; 15th and 22nd are Sundays, 18th is a public holiday. Road distance from Trivandrum-Nedumangad is 21 kms. Rail distance from Trivandrum-Alappuzha is 149 Kms. If he avails maximum admissible joining time, he should join his duty at Alappuzha on :
24th July 2012, Tuesday, Forenoon.

26.    If any doubt arises as to whether the rules in KSR would apply to any person, the matter will be decided by:
Government.

27.    An additional Secretary to Government, Finance Department was deputed as Managing Director, Kerala Financial Corporation without his willingness. Is his willingness necessary for his deputation?
Since Kerala Financial Corporation is an undertaking substantially owned and controlled by Government, willingness of the officer is not required.

28.    In which class can a Grade II(a) officer travel by train:
First Class/II AC.

29.    The period for which the Service Book of an employee who retired, should be retained by the Head of Office in which he last worked is:
25 years.

30.    A circle Inspector of Police(Higher Grade) on Rs.21240-560-24040-620-27140-680-29860-750-32860-820-36140-900-37040 and drawing a pay of Rs.26520 w.e.f 1-07-2011 is promoted as DYSP on Rs. 24040-620-27140-680-29860-750-32860-820-36140-900-38840 w.e.f. 27-02-12. Opted 28 A w.e.f the day of promotion. His pay as on 01-07-2013 is :
28,500.

31.    Question Deleted.

32.    Extraordinary pension is :
Pension awarded when an officer sustains injury or contracts disease or dies in the execution of the duties held by him.

33.    Question Deleted.

34.    An officer who is placed under suspension applies that he may be granted during suspension such leave as may be admissible to him. Which among the following statements is true?
(A) Leave due can be given if the officer has got confirmation.
(B) No leave can be granted to a Government servant under suspension.
(C) Only earned leave at credit may be granted to the officer.
(D) Leave admissible to him may be granted to the officer.
Ans: (B) No leave can be granted to a Government servant under suspension.

35.    Higher rate of family pension is allowed for a maximum period of :
7 years.

36.    The maximum period of leave that may be sanctioned to an officer for taking up employment abroad or within India is limited to:
20 years.

37.    An officer drawing a pay of Rs.32,860 in the scale of pay of 20740-500-21240-560-24040-620-27140-680-29860-750-32860-820-36140 w.e.f 01-07-09. His increment is barred for 2 years without cumulative effect as per order dated 25-09-09. His pay as on 1-07-12 is :
35,320.

38.    The rules in Part I KSR came into force with effect from:
1-11-1959.

39.    Question Deleted.

40.    Any person who enters the service on or after 1-9-1984:
Need to join  Group Insurance Scheme within a period of 1 year from the date of entry in service.

41.    Who is competent to withhold or withdraw pension?
Government.

42.    Whose duty is to scrutinise the distances entered in travelling allowance bills and to check any tendency to abuse the option of exchanging daily allowance for mileage allowance is required?
Controlling officer.

43.    What kind of pension can be given if a post held by an Officer is abolished and the officer is not willing to accept another appointment?
Compensation Pension.

44.    A junior IAS officer drawing an actual pay of Rs.25,0000 claimed T.A as applicable to Grade I officer which was objected to by the Treasury Officer. Which among the statement is true?
(A) Since the officer belongs to the IAS cadre, irrespective of the pay drawn by him, he can claim T.A as applicable to Grade I officers. Hence the objection is not in order.
(B) Since there is no special order, the officer cannot draw T.A as applicable to Grade I officer. Hence the objection is in order.
(C) Only if an officer draws a basic pay of Rs.25,280 can be treated as Grade I officer. Hence the objection is in order.
(D) Since the officer is a Junior IAS officer, he cannot draw T.A as applicable to Grade I officer. Hence the objection is in order.
Ans: (A) Since the officer belongs to the IAS cadre, irrespective of the pay drawn by him, he can claim T.A as applicable to Grade I officers. Hence the objection is not in order.

45.    Is Government sanction necessary for an Superintendent of Police in the Crime Branch to visit another state for investigation of a case?
Yes; sanction is required from the Government.

46.    An officer whose headquarters is at Trivandrum died at Kozhikode while on tour. His family wanted to settle down at Chennai. Which among the following statement is true?
(A) The family will be granted T.A. for their journey to Chennai as journey on transfer.
(B) The family will not be granted any T.A. since their journey is to a station outside the state.
(C) The family will not be granted any T.A for their journey to Chennai.
(D) The family will be granted T.A for their journey if performed within a month.
Ans: (A) The family will be granted T.A. for their journey to Chennai as journey on transfer.

47.    The minimum qualifying service for earning full pension is :
30years.

48.    A recurring or non recurring payment to an officer from a source other than the General revenues of the state is known as:
Fee.

49.    For official duty, when two or more officers are travelling in a conveyance belonging to one of them:
Full T.A will be given only to the officer who owns the conveyance.

50.    Question Deleted.
51.    Question Deleted.
52.    Question Deleted.

53.    The maximum number of stagnation increments is :
Five.

54.    Question Deleted.

55.    An officer who has put in a qualifying service of 29 years 9 months and 10 days applies for his retiring pension. His qualifying service for retiring pension will be reckoned as :
30 years.

56.    Pay drawn by an officer in an ex-cadre post:
Can be taken into account for the purpose of initial fixation of pay on promotion in parent department.

57.    For onward journey to be performed on the same day on which official business is to be transacted, the distance of the outstation from the headquarters shall be within:
50 kms.

58.    If a pension of an officer is Rs.18,279, maximum amount that can be commuted is:
7311.

59.    The maximum personal effects that can be carried by a Grade II officer upon transfer is :
2000 Kgms.

60.    Which among the following is not an obligatory departmental test?
(A) Any test a pass in which is prescribed for promotion to a higher post coming in the line of promotion.
(B) Any test  a pass in which is prescribed for by-transfer appointment to a higher post coming not in the line of promotion.
(C) Any test a pass in which is prescribed for the purpose of making eligible for increment.
(D) Any test a pass in which is prescribed for the completion of probation.
Ans: (B) Any test  a pass in which is prescribed for by-transfer appointment to a higher post coming not in the line of promotion.

61.    A teacher was posted on vacation duty from 15-04-2012 to 5-05-2012. If his total vacation days are 60 days, calculate his earned leave due to him.
11

62.    An officer deputed to undergo a course of training may draw T.A, as on transfer if the course of training exceeds:
3 months.

63.    The maximum number of compensation leave that can be taken by a Government servant in a calendar year is limited to :
15 days.

64.    If an officer  drawing a pay of Rs. 37,940 on 22360-37940 w.e.f 1-10-10 is promoted to the scale of pay of Rs.24,040-620-27140-680-29860-820-36140-900-38840 w.e.f 1-12-10. He opted 28A w.e.f promotion date. His pay as on 01-12-10 is:
38840+900 personal pay.

65.    If an officer halts at more than one station on the same day, allowance for halt may be calculated:
After computing the total hours spent on halt all the outstations taken together.

66.    Compassionate allowance granted to an employee shall not exceed:
2/3 of pension which would have been admissible.

67.    The strength of a service  or part  of a service sanctioned as a separate unit is called:
Cadre.

68.    The reservation charges paid for railway journeys in respect of appropriate classes of accommodation:
Will be reimbursed to all Government Servants if reservation is actually required in exigencies of public service.

69.    Family pension is :
30% of the last pay.

70.    D.A admissible for intermediate halts beyond 200kms, when a journey is performed in departmental vehicle is :
(½)D.A.

71.    Half pay leave granted in advance when there is no other leave with allowance at the credit  of an officer is called:
Leave not due.

72.    Time scales are said to be identical:
If the minimum, maximum, the period of increment and the rate of increment of the time scales are identical.

73.    An officer was drawing Rs .26,520 per month from 1-06-10. From 1-08-10 his pay became Rs.27,820. The officer retired on 31-03-11. His Average Emoluments is :
27560.

74.    Regarding special Disability leave which among the following  is true?
It may be combined with leave of any other kind.

75.    When a gazetted Government employee is likely  to retire  before  his pension can be finally assessed and settled by the audit officer which among the following  pension shall be given to him:
(A) Anticipatory Pension.    (B) Retiring Pension.   
(C) Compensatory Pension. (D) Compassionate Allowance.
Ans: Anticipatory Pension.

76.    Maximum number of years reckoned for calculating DCRG is:
33 years.

77.    The form of Travelling Allowance which is calculated on the distance travelled and which is given to meet the cost of the particular journey is called:
Mileage  Allowance.

78.    Question Deleted.

79.    An officer retired on superannuation on 30-6-2012 whose pension is Rs .27,629/- commuted maximum commutation admissible. Total amount he would receive as commutation value is:
1471994.

80.    For journeys performed by foot between places not connected by any public conveyance, officers of the First Grade shall be given:
Mileage Allowance at the rate applicable for journeys by special conveyance.
81.    Government servants representing India in international events are allowed special casual leave not exceeding :
90 days.

82.    An officer under suspension dies before the disciplinary proceedings instituted against him. Which among the following  statements is true?
(A) The period between suspension and death shall be regularized as leave without allowance.
(B) The period between his suspension and death shall be treated as duty and his family shall be paid full pay and allowances.
(C) The period between suspension and death shall be regularized as leave with allowance.
(D) The period between suspension and death shall not be treated as duty.
Ans: (A) The period between his suspension and death shall be treated as duty and his family shall be paid full pay and allowances.

83.    Average emoluments is calculated on the basis of the pay drawn during the last:
10 months.

84.    When the post held by an officer is upgraded, which rule will be applied for the fixation of pay in the new post?
Rule 30.

85.    The age of superannuation for employees of Government of Kerala(except Doctors, Judicial officers…etc) is :
56 years.

86.    A probationer is an officer:
Employed on probation in or against a substantive vacancy in the cadre of a department.
87.    When an employee retires voluntarily after 20 years of service, he may be given?
Retiring Pension.

88.    An officer holding a substantive appointment was promoted substantively to another post. Which rule will be applied for the fixation of his pay in the new post?
Rule 28.

89.    If an officer is summoned to give evidence in a criminal case, which among the following is true?
(A) He is entitled to receive T.A. in addition to payment of expenses from the court.
(B) He is not Entitled to receive T.A.
(C) He may draw Travelling Allowance as for journey on tour.
(D) He is entitled to receive T.A, irrespective of the distance to the court.
Ans: (C) He may draw Travelling Allowance as for journey on tour.

90.    The maximum amount of DCRG under KSR is limited to :
7 Lakhs.

91.    A Grade II (a) officer whose headquarters is in Trivandrum proceeded to Kozhikode and halted there for 15 days. His entitlement for total Daily allowance:
2750.

92.    Superannuation Pension is :
Pension granted to an employee who retires on attaining a particular age.

93.    Which among the following cannot be commuted retrospectively into a different kind of leave?
(A) Earned Leave.    (B)Leave Without Allowance    (C) Half Pay Leave    (D)Commuted Leave.
Ans: Earned Leave.

94.    A Senior Joint Director drawing a pay of Rs.47,640 w.e.f 1-07-09 on 40640-1000-48640-1100-57440 is promoted as Additional Director on the scale of pay of Rs.42640-1000-48640-1100-57440-1200-58640 w.e.f 8-10-09. Fix his pay as on 01-07-11:
50840.

95.    When an officer is travelling on Class I hilly tracks, he can claim an additional D. A. of :
25%
96.    An officer appointed to hold full additional charge shall receive special allowance, if :

He performs all the administrative, financial and statutory functions, and duties in respect of that post.
97.    Question Deleted.

98.    Maternity leave on full pay may be granted to female officers for a period of :
180 days.

99.    Pension ceases to be payable, if undrawn for a period of more than:
3 years.

100.    Which period of leave shall not count for increments in the time scale applicable to a post in which the officer was officiating?
Leave Without Allowance without medical certificate.
   

SOLVED PAPER OF INTRODUCTION TO INDIAN GOVERNMENT ACCOUNTS AND AUDIT, THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA AND KERALA ACCOUNT CODE VOL.I /SOLVED PAPER OF ACCOUNT TEST (HIGHER)-PART II PAPER I

SOLVED PAPER OF INTRODUCTION TO INDIAN GOVERNMENT ACCOUNTS AND AUDIT, THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA AND KERALA ACCOUNT CODE VOL.I /SOLVED PAPER OF ACCOUNT TEST (HIGHER)-PART II PAPER I- EXAM HELD IN JULY 2012.

1. The accounts of bodies substantially financed from state revenues are to be audited by C&AG:
Subject to fulfillment of prescribed conditions.

2. Proforma accounts of certain departments are prepared and maintained by:
Concerned departmental authorities.

3. Government accounts are kept in:
Three parts.

4. The limit for raising money under borrowings a state government upon the security of its consolidated fund is fixed by:
Legislative assembly.

5. No money can be withdrawn for the consolidated fund of a state government until:
Appropriation act is passed.

6. Any allotment or re-appropriation within a grant may be authorised by the competent authority:
At any time before the expiry of the financial year.

7. "Ways and the means "refers to:
A method of maintaining sufficient cash balance not below the minimum limit stipulated by R.B.I.

8. Cash balance of a government, comprises balances in its account with:
RBI and the balances at the non-banking treasuries including sub treasuries.

9. Expenditure of capital nature is usually met from:
Borrowed funds.

10. The roles of audit and administration are:
Complementary to each other.

11. Writing back of capitalised interest after the project is commissioned is:
Permissible.

12. Cost of additional police guards provided to an irrigation project under construction is debitable to:
Project concerned.

13. When losses are inevitable feature of department, it is recorded under:
Major Head relating to that department.

14. Large departments like public works and forest having cheque drawing powers render monthly complied accounts to:
Accountant general.

15. Currency and bank notes held in currency chests are:
Notes not in circulation and pass into circulation when transferred to treasury balance.

16. Currency officers (R.B.I) are responsible for:
(A) Supplying coins to treasuries.
(B) Supplying coins and notes to treasuries.
(C) Arranging for transfer of funds between treasuries & banks and remittance of   money between treasury & currency office.
(D) Combination of all these functions.
Ans: Combination of all these functions.

17. Collection of non tax revenue is based on :
Purely an administrative decision.

18. Sanction with long period of currency, as well as sanction of a permanent nature should be:
Revised periodically.

19. Re-appropriation from one grant or appropriation to another grant or appropriation are:
Not permissible.

20. Technical sanction of an estimate (of a work) is a sanction:
Accorded by competent technical authority to indicate that the proposals are structurally sound and estimate is prepared correctly.

21. A supplementary estimate for a work is required when:
Item considered necessary for execution while a work is in progress and not fairly contingent on the proper execution of the work as first sanctioned.

22. Every department of Government has charge of articles purchased with public money. These articles may be classified broadly as :
Priced articles and unpriced articles.

23. What items of Tools and Plant used for projects/works are to be treated as “ordinary” and “special” is to be decided:
By Executive.

24. The issue rate of an article is fixed:
At the beginning of each financial year.

25. The priced stores ledger is posted from :
Goods Received sheets and indent.

26. The State Audit Reports are:
Signed by AG, countersigned by C&AG and submitted to Governor for being laid before legislature.

27. Appropriation Acts of the Parliament or Legislature provide the authority for:
Spending the money on various purposes indicated in the budget passed.

28. The Finance Accounts of the Government are generally prepare in …………….part(s):
Two parts-summarized statement and departmental accounts and other statements.

29. Fundamental Rights of citizens are enshrined in the Constitution in part:
III.

30. Parliament shall have and the Legislature of a State shall not have power to make laws under:
Art.16 (3), 32(3), 33 and 34.

31. A person who has held office of President of India shall be:
Eligible for re-election on the expiry of the term (subject to other provisions of the constitution).

32. The President of India shall be elected by members of an electoral college consisting of:
The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assembles of the States.

33. The emoluments and allowances of the President shall not be ……. During his term of office:
Diminished.

34. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the:
President.

35. The members nominated to the Rajya Sabha shall consist of persons having special knowledge in respect of such matters as:
Literature, Science, Art and Social service.

36. The president shall have…….. to grant pardons in all cases including death sentences awarded by the courts:
Absolute power.

37. The power of dismissing the House of People is vested with the:
President.

38. Supplementary grant is moved in the parliament /Legislature Assembly when:
The amount authorized by law for a particular service is found to be insufficient during the course of the year.

39. Annual Reports of the State Public Service Commission shall be submitted to :
Governor of the state (for being laid before the Legislative Assembly).

40. A member of the state public service commission shall hold office for a term of ……..
6 years and up to 62 years.

41. A state may raise any loan without any restriction:
Cannot raise loans without the consent of the Government of India if there is a still outstanding any part of loans made to the State by Government of India.

42. The constitution provides to constitute a Finance Commission at intervals of :
5 years.

43. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the……….shall be final:
Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

44. When a Bill is passed by the House of Parliament, it shall be presented to the President, who shall declare:
Either he assents to the bill or that he withholds assent therein.

45. Joint sittings of both the Houses (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha) of Parliament to resolve certain bills are summoned by the:
President of India.

46. Technical sanction to be obtained for execution of a work:
Is mandatory and should be obtained before commencement of work.

47. In the case of moneys received to be held as deposits with Government, Audit has to see that any deposits remaining unclaimed beyond the prescribed period are:
Lapsed and duly credited as revenue receipts of Government.

48. Under Suspense heads are recorded such transactions that are:
Ultimately removed by payment or recovery in cash or book adjustment.

49. A sub divisional officer is empowered to draw cheques against the accounts of his Divisional officer by:
The Divisional officer.

50. The main point in every fraud investigation, must be to ascertain:
Whether the exercising ordinary common sense and application of existing rules would not have rendered the fraud impossible.

51. The general principles and rules of Audit which govern audit of expenditure  apply mutatis mutandis to:
Disbursement under debts, deposits, remittances and suspense heads.

52. The responsibility for watching the progress of expenditure against a (grant) devolves on the:
Executive.

53. To see that no authority exercises its powers of sanctioning expenditure to pass an order which will be directly or indirectly to its own advantage is part and parcel of :
Propriety audit.

54. One of the main checks in Audit is to ensure that there is provision of funds for the expenditure duly authorized by competent authority. This type of Audit is prescribed for:
Government Audit.

55. Enforcing economy in the expenditure of public moneys is the responsibility of :
Executive Government.

56. The object of Appropriation Accounts is :
To relate expenditure brought to account during a financial year to several items specified in the schedule to Appropriation Act passed by the L.A.

57. Appropriation Accounts, Finance accounts, and Audit Reports(Civil) laid before the L.A. are examined by:
Public Accounts Committee.

58. Cash basis of accounts means:
Actual cash receipts and disbursements during a financial year as distinct from amounts due to or by Government.

59. Unit of Appropriation is the :
Detailed head.

60. Commercial departments are maintained mainly for the purpose of :
Rendering services or providing supplies on payment for the services or for articles supplied.

61. It is the duty of the Finance Commission to:
Making recommendations about distribution of Income Tax and Central Excise Duties between Union and States and principles for Central grants to States.

62. Finance commission is constructed by:
President of India.

63. Unpriced articles (of stores) comprise of :
Stationery, furniture…etc.

64. Bin card (of store items) is posted from:
Goods received sheets and store indents.

65. Leave accounts of Gazetted Government servants are maintained by :
Accountant General (A&E).

66. Central Audit is based on scrutiny of :
Accounts and vouchers, schedules and other documents received form various disbursing officers.

67. Inspection Reports of Audit deal with:
More important defects of procedure and financial irregularities.

68. Unless specifically permitted by rules/competent authority revenue due to Government:
Can be credited only after realization. Credit must follow are not precede actual realization.

69. Audit against provision of funds is directed to ascertain whether:
The money has been expended for the purpose(s) intended by the grant.

70. Scale regulated contingences are those for which:
Particular scales are laid down by the competent authority with other conditions to be complied with.

71. Consolidated treasury receipt for each month in respect of a P.W.Division is prepared by:
Divisional Officer and signed by District Treasury Officer.

72. Every grant made for a specific object is subject to the implied condition that:
Grant will be spent for the specified object within a reasonable time, and unspent grant refunded.

73. Advocate General of a State  is appointed by:
The Government of the state.

74. While the office of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is vacant, the duties of that office shall be performed by:
Deputy Speaker.

75. The question of disqualification of members of LA (as mentioned in the Constitution) will be decided finally by:
The Governor.

76. The constitution provides for declaring Financial Emergency by President when:
He is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or any part of it, is threatened.

77. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly, unless he is :
Not less than 25 years of age.

78. A bill which if enacted would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India shall not passed by either house of Parliament, unless:
The President has recommended to that house for the consideration of the bill.

79. Official business in Parliament shall be transacted in :
Hindi or English.

80. The normal term of the President of India for holding office is :
Five Years.

81. No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except:
Under appropriation made by law passed in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

82. The annual financial statement to be laid before the Legislative Assembly of the State will embody:
Estimated receipts and expenditure for the year, sums required for charged items and sums required for meeting other expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State.

83. No person shall be eligible for election as President unless he has completed the age of :
35 years.

84. The executive powers of the Union(Central Government) is vested in the :
President.

85. Taxes levied and collected by Union and distributed between the Union and the States are:
Income Tax.

86. The Vice president of India shall be elected by an electoral college consisting of members of:
Both the houses of the parliament.

87. Travel expenses of a Government servant for travel on duty connected with an outside body is debitable to:
The fund of the outside body.

88. State Treasuries are those controlled by:
State Government.

89. In regular Government accounts, the correct allocation of expenditure to revenue or capital heads of accounts is checked by:
Audit department.

90. Detection and prevention of fraud in the Government system of audit is taken care by:
Checks by Executive Officers and supplemented by local audit and continuous central audit.

91. An important duty of audit in relation to borrowing is :
To ensure it is brought to account, utilized for the intended objects and arrangements made for amortization of debt.

92. Ordinarily all amount due to Government, which are found to be irrecoverable shall be written off from the debt head as a loss to Government.
An expenditure head as a loss to Government.

93. A service receipt of which full particulars are not of given must be taken:
To minor head “other receipts” under revenue head to which it appears to belong.

94. The main unit of classification in accounts is :
Major head.

95. The classification of transactions in Government shall have closer reference to :
Function, programme, and activity of Government and the object of revenue or expenditure.
96. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by:
President of India.

97. Audit Reports(Civil) of C&AG are scrutinized and follow-up action recommended by :
Public Accounts Committee.

98. Introduction of a new Major Head of Account requires the sanction of :
C&AG of India.

99. Duties being performed by Comptroller and Auditor General of India are based on :
C & AG’s (Duties Powers, & Conditions of Services) Act 1971.

100. Taxes collected by Government are classified under:
Consolidated Fund.

SOLVED PAPER OF KERALA FINANCIAL CODE (HIGHER) EXAM /SOLVED PAPER OF KFC (HIGHER) EXAM

SOLVED PAPER OF ACCOUNT TEST (HIGHER) – PART I – PAPER II EXAM HELD ON JULY, 2012.
(THE KERALA FINANCIAL CODE VOLUMES I AND II AND KERALA BUDGET MANUAL)

 1.    Principles to be observed in making appointment of supernumeraries:
Art. 69 (c) kfc vol. I

2.    Deduction towards provident fund from pay bills:
Art. 89(1) kfc vol I.

3.    Measurement book is defined in:
Art. 189 kfc vol I.

4.    Muster roll is defined in
Art. 186 kfc vol I.

5.    Procedure to be followed when a warning slip is received:
Para 66 kbm.

6.    Distribution of reduction in demand among subheads will be done by
Finance secretary.

7.    Civil Deposits are classified in:
Art. 268 kfc vol I.

8.    Treasurer of charitable endowment is:
Director of local fund audit.

9.    Restriction towards the use of erasers is explained in:
Art. 336 kfc vol I.

10.    Write off of irrecoverable loans and advances:
Art. 265 kfc vol I.

11.    Present rate of interest of marriage advance:
8%.

12.    Revenue advance is explained in:
Art. 259 kfc vol I

13.    Payment of Annual grant in aid to Grandhasala Sangham:
Art. 215 kfc vol I.

14.    Composition and Functioning of Committee on Public Accounts is prescribed in:
Para 108 kbm.

15.    Disposal of draft para deals in:
Para 104 kbm.

16.    To authorise an increment  to a Gazetted Officer, The Accountant General requires:
[Question Deleted.]

17.    Settlement of unclaimed Provident Fund Deposit is dealt in
Art. 276 kfc vol I.

18.    Responsibility if loss is being fixed as per:
Art. 303 kfc vol I.

19.    The budget manual form -11 is prescribed for:
Details of Govt. Property leased out at concessional rate.

20.    Explanatory memorandum to budget will not include:
[Question Deleted.]

21.    Prosecution for embezzlement of public money or property deals in:
Art. 305 kfc vol. 1.

22.    Control of expenditure by Disbursing officer prescribed in:
Para 70 kbm.

23.    Standards of Financial propriety and important Financial Principles is prescribed in:
Art. 40(b) and (c) kfc vol. 1.

24.    Period of limitations in the case of arrears of pay, pension and gratuity is fixed in:
Art. 56(b) kfc vol. 1.

25.    Vacancy remission is allowed as per:
Art. 117(4) kfc vol. 1.

26.    ‘Audit Report’ is mentioned in:
Para 99 kbm.

27.    Administration, supervision and control of secret service expenditure deals in accordance with:
Appn. 6 kfc vol. 2.

28.    Forest Deposit is defined in:
Art. 278 kfc vol. 1.

29.    Realization of EMD is prescribed in:
Art. 132 kfc vol. 1.

30.    Revenue deposit is defined in:
[Question Deleted.].

31.    Waiver of revenue is explained in:
Art. 38A kfc vol. 1.

32.    Letter of credit as a measure of budgetary control is prescribed in:
Appn. 12 kbm.

33.    Items included in the criminal court deposit are stated in:
Art. 271 kfc vol. 1.

34.    Communication of Sanction to the Accountant General is insisted in:
Art. 45 kfc vol. 1.

35.    Consolidated Estimate of Plan Schemes are prepared in:
Para 16 kbm.

36.    Period of validity of an endorsed bill is:
3 Months subject to the last day of March.

37.    Remission of revenue is explained in:
Art. 38 kfc vol. 1.

38.    Procedure for supplementary grant is prescribed in:
Para 11, 87-89 kbm.

39.    Security deposit of private employer of a Government employee is prescribed in:
Art. 296 kfc vol. 1.

40.    Classification of transactions are prescribed in:
Para 9 kbm.

41.    Which is not a Local Fund?
State Insurance Fund.

42.    Inter Govt. transactions are adjusted by:
Accountant General.

43.    Committee on Estimate is mentioned in :
[Question Deleted.]

44.    Negotiated contract is mentioned in :
Art.142 kfc vol.I

45.    Rules on Refund of revenue is prescribed in :
Art.35-37 kfc vol.I

46.    Vote on account is explained in :
Para 57 kbm.

47.    Item of expenditure NOT charged on the consolidated fund of the state:
Salary and allowances of subordinate judicial officers.

48.    Write off of losses is defined in :
Art.300 kfc vol I.

49.    The term ‘New Service’ is explained  in :
Para 94 kbm.

50.    Immediate relief to Families of Person die in Harness is prescribed in :
Art.253 kfc vol .I & Appn.10 vol.2.

51.    Estimate  of a work is prepared under:
Art.173 kfc vol. 1.

52.    Rules and Regulations to grant Permananent Advance:
Art.95 kfc Vol.1.

53.    Appendix 5 kbm deals with:
Gross vote under suspense stock.

54.    Validity  period of a letter of credit is :
3 months.

55.    Appropriation bill is explained in :
Para 56 kbm.

56.    Corpus of contingency fund of Kerala is :
[Question Deleted.]

57.    Permanent advance is being used to meet:
Unforeseen expenditure.

58.    Specimen signature of a gazetted officer is to be forwarded to the Accountant General in case:
To draw leave salary in another state.

59.    Sanction will lapse in accordance with:
Art. 50kfc vol.1.

60.    Procedure for accepting “Tender” is explained in :
Art.135 kfc vol.1.

61.    Treasury officer refused to accept a non-countersigned R.T.C of an officer who assumed charge of a newly created post. Is it correct?
No, exception to Art.81 (a) kfc vol.1.

62.    Recovery of charges from local body is authorized in :
Art.311 kfc vol.1.

63.    Discretionary donation to charitable institutions are being sanctioned by:
Governor.

64.    Procedure to be followed when a defalcation or loss come to notice is specified in :
Art.297 kfc vol.1.

65.    The record that can be destroyed is :
Sub vouchers of secret service expenditure.

66.    Preparation of revised budget estimation is prescribed in :
Para 20 kbm.

67.    The units of appropriation is specified in :
Appn.11 kbm.

68.    Reporting of personal claim of a gazetted officer is as per:
Para 77 kbm.

69.    Collective fidelity guarantee insurance policy is mentioned in :
Art.286 kfc vol.1.

70.    Sub major Head is defined in:
Para 11 kbm.

71.    Refund of revenue is defined in:
Art.35 kfc vol.1

72.    Advance of purchase of motor car is sanctioned by:
Government.

73.    Preparation of indent for purchase is specified in :
Art.123 kfc vol.1.

74.    Functioning of Finance Commission of India will be determined by:
The President of India.

75.    The control of expenditure by Chief controlling officer is specified in :
Para 72 kbm.

76.    Special rule for a particular item of contingent expenditure is incorporated in :
Appn.4 kfc.vol2.

77.    Allowances not exempted from court attachment:
[Question Deleted.]

78.    ‘Draft paragraph’ is explained in :
Para 100 kbm.

79.    Budget Documents are enlisted in:
Para 51 kbm.

80.    Major divisions of accounts are specified in :
Para 8 kbm.

81.    Procedure  to be followed discrepancies found on verification of stores is explained in:
Art. 161, kfc vol.1

82.    Performance Budget:
Para 53 kbm.

83.    Which is not a part of the public account?
Forest Deposit.

84.    Repayment of security deposit is based on :
Art.295 (a) kfc Vol.1.

85.    Rules governing secret service expenditure is :
Appnx. 6 kfc vol.2

86.    Which is not an interest bearing advance?
Transfer pay advance.

87.    Expenditure on inaugural ceremony of major works are controlled by:
Art.221 kfc vol.1.

88.    Duties and responsibilities in realizing fine:
Art.23 (a) kfc vol.1.

89.    HBA to Govt servant is sanctioned under:
[Question Deleted.]

90.    Immovable property register is maintained under rule:
Art.170 kfc vol.1.

91.    Procedure for regularization excess over voted grant:
Appnx.15 kbm.

92.    Grant is aid to state co-operative union is sanctioned by :
Registrar of co-operative societies.

93.    Destruction of official records relating to accounts is specified in :
Art.338 kfc vol.1

94.    Keeping of accounts relating to Fine is under:
Art 24 kfc vol1.

95.    Rules for preparation of Muster Roll:
Art.187 kfc vol.1.

96.    Contractor’s security deposit is realized under:
Art.287 kfc vol.1

97.    The rate of penal interest on overdue installment of loan:
2.5%.

98.    Secretary to saving bank is :
Director of Treasuries.

99.    The TA bills which needs no counter signature:
Secretary to Government.

100.    List of estimating officers is incorporated in :
Appnx.6 kbm.

SOLVED PAPER OF MANUAL OF OFFICE PROCEDURE TEST/SOLVED PAPER OF MOP-JULY, 2012

SOLVED PAPER OF MOP EXAM HELD IN JULY, 2012
[Also common paper for Departmental Test for the Ministerial Staff, Vigilance Division-II Paper, Departmental Test for the Ministerial Staff of K.S.E.B.-IV Paper)
[Manual of Office Procedure for use in offices other than those Departments for which separate manuals have been prescribed (Common Paper)]

1.    Papers of ephemeral character are not entered in this register:
Distribution register.

2.    When valuables are received the tappal clerk enters the details in:
Security register.

3.    The valuables received in the office sent for safe custody of:
Manager.

4.    The stamps received in the office duly affixed on petition are defaced by:
 Tappal clerk.

5.    The acknowledgement of the manager who receive the valuables in the office to       be obtained in this place:
Margins of the communication.

6.    A new personal register is opened for every year:
Calendar year.

7.    How many entries can be made in each page of the personal register?
Three entries.

8.    The process of putting up previous correspondence is: (Question Deleted)

9.    An officer writes questions on the margin of the note file and where the clerk to furnish reply:
In continuation of the note file.

10.    At the top of note file what colour fly leaf is placed?
Yellow.

11.    Put up for reference will be placed, when two files will be linked:
Below.

12.    In the course of dealing with a subject, a fresh subject arises, what is desirable to deal it:
Opening of a fresh file.

13.    In which area of the file the arguments for and against any measure can be taken?
Note.

14.    When a reference is from bulky volume to be put up this is sufficient:
Extracts of passage.

15.    How a running note will go until the final orders?
Continuation.

16.    When drafts can be put up with note:
In simple case

17.    How a draft is written or type written in on sheet leaving margin?
Half margin.

18.    The entry in the index relating to an individual paper is called:
Title.

19.    How the amount noted in the draft is to be clearly shown?
In words as well as in figures.

20.    A petitioner submitted a complaint in a government office and requested for acknowledgement:
To be acknowledged.

21.    When a petition of a party is rejected what is to be specified in the draft?
Reason should be specified.

22.    A letter is received from a MP:
Careful Consideration.

23.    Which disposal to be sent out in original?
N Disposal.

24.    Which disposals are to be filed?
F disposal.

25.    How many index slips are prepared by the clerk?
Duplicate.

26.    When final disposal is made, the nature and date of disposal to be completed in this register?
Personal Register.

27.    One index slip is kept by the clerk:
For reference of the clerk.
28.    Inside of which the name of the department, office and date of disposal to be shown:
(Question Deleted)

29.    Before sending the final disposal to the fair copy section who is expected to verify that no further action to be taken:
Superintendent.

30.    Who will send the disposal to the record section?
Fair copy section.

31.    When the disposal is forwarded to record section what is to be obtained from record section by fair copy section:
Acknowledgement.

32.    Such closing of files are strictly prohibited:
Premature Closing.

33.    When the peons to come in the office?
Half an hour earlier.

34.    After the heads and sub. heads which is placed:
Title proper.

35.    Why each clerk to maintain the index disposal file?
To refer afterwards.

36.    How many late attendances will f forfeit one casual leave?
Three Days.

37.    The system of indexing on the basis of index slip is known as?
Slip index system.

38.    How the index slip are used in the office?
Punched with 2 holes.

39.    In record room in which way the index slips are filed in one combined index:
For whole office.

40.    What is the benefit of keeping combined index?
New slips can be inserted.

41.    When the volume of index slip became bulky?
Broken up to smaller volumes

42.    Number of letter forms are commonly known as :
Question Deleted.

43.    Which form of communication is used for addressing Govt.?
Letter Form.

44.    A regional office of a Govt. department wrote a letter to Govt. How this can be sent to Govt.?
Sent through the Head of Department.

45.    The corrections and interlineations should be avoided in :
Fair copying.

46.    To draw the personal attention of the individual officer another officer addressed, the communication taken this form:
Demi-official.

47.    In which way a communication is sent to a subordinate officer for remarks:
Endorsement Form.

48.    Who will examine the local delivery book daily?
Despatching Clerk.

49.    According to the rules for correspondence which officer can address govt. directs:
Heads of Departments.

50.    All communications are sent from an office in the name of :
Head of office.

51.    Who is to sign the proceedings issued from an office?
[Question Deleted].

52.    As far as possible, how many topics can be dealt with in one letter:
One Topic.

53.    What is the salutation form of letters in respect of a lady?
Madam.

54.    What is the subscription of all letters?
Yours faithfully.

55.    Which correspondence is undesirable to place on official records?
Demi-official

56.    Who should sign the proceedings criticizing the subordinate officer?
Head of office.


57.    Before signing the paper on which issue special care should be given by the signing authority:
Legal matters.

58.    The MP is writing a letter to the District Collector to draw his attention to an urgent matter. Who is to sign the reply to the MP:
Collector.

59.    The reply to MLA from Panchayat department Head quarters office secretariat on his petition to be signed by :
[Question Deleted]

60.    After signing of the paper to whom it is handed over:
Despatch clerk.

61.    Where the despatch clerk enters the date of despatch in?
Personal Register.

62.    Who is to affix despatch stamp on each office copy?
Despatch clerk.

63.    Which slip is pasted in the envelop?
Economy slip.

64.    In case confidential papers, what is affixed on both end of the economy slip:
Zeal.

65.    When economy slip cannot be used?
Registered Post.

66.    The letters to the office with in the head quarters are sent:
Local delivery book.

67.    Which register is to be checked by the fair copy superintendent daily?
Despatch-cum account register.

68.    What is to be handed over when a clerk goes on casual leave?
Office Key.

69.    How many pages are to be typed by a Malayalam typist daily?
[Question Deleted]

70.    Normally when  receipt of petitions will be acknowledged by Govt. office:
[Question Deleted]

71.    How many years the despatch-cum account register is to be retained?
Three years.

72.    The fair copy superintendent is to submit this register to the head of office every month for verification:
Call book.

73.    Whose responsibility is the supply of records?
Record Keeper.

74.    In whose custody the attendance register will be kept in each sections:
Superintendent.

75.    Generally who is authorised to inspect the record room periodically:
Head Ministerial officer.

76.    What will be in the place of records issued?
Slip.

77.    How many records can be used from the same time from the record section?
[Question Deleted]


78.    In which method the registers in the Govt. officer can be maintained:
Prescribed form.

79.    When telephone message are received it is treated as:
Demi-official.

80.    If an oral instruction is received from the Hon. Minister. What is to be done?
Brought to the notice of Head of the Department.

81.    Muslim officers will be granted 2 hours from 12.30 to 2.30 p.m. on this day for jumma prayers:
Friday.

82.    An interval of 45 minutes are allowed to Govt. employees from :

1.15 to 2 P.M.

83.    When the attendance closes after the office opens?
10 minutes.

84.    Each superintendent should maintain a register to record the staff going out at office …… hours.
Movement Register.
85.    How many years can keep the record issue register?
Three years.

86.    This kind of reference is also registered as the same way as  any other paper received in the tappal:
Arising reference.

87.    It is consists of the current file and note file:
 [Question Deleted]

88.    A communication received in the office is stamped and numbered is called:
Current.

89.    The preparation of any communication is called:
Drafting.

90.    The term used to denote the process of copying and despatching of communication is :
Issue.

91.    It is written by the clerk to facilitate disposal of :
Note.

92.    Reply to a reference issued from the office has to be filed with a current already pending is called:
Old case.

93.    Process of putting up previous correspondence for disposal of a case is :
Referencing.

94.    A minor division of office consisting of a superintendent and one or more clerks under him is called:
Section.

95.    The current and enclosure arranged below is punched and a tag is passed through the hole is :
Tagging.

96.    The tappal is opened and stamped in the presence of :
Head of office.

97.    The Tappal received in the office is opened and entered in:
Distribution register.

98.    In which file the concerned clerk add the current, if it is related to an unclosed case:
Current file.

99.    The authority to pass orders in the notes submitted from the section is :
Head of office.

100.    When a file is finally disposed of the file with a copy of which is sent to record room:
Index slip.

SOLVED PAPER OF KERALA SERVICE RULES/KSR (HIGHER) EXAM -2012

SOLVED PAPER OF OBJECTIVE DEPARTMENTAL TESTS HELD IN 2012.

SOLVED PAPER OF ACCOUNT TEST (HIGHER) –PART II-PAPER III-EXAM HELD IN JULY 2012.

[SOLVED PAPER OF KERALA SERVICE RULES (HIGHER)/SOLVED PAPER OF KSR (HIGHER)]

1.    New recruits in Govt. service shall produce a form for Service Payroll Administrative Repository for Kerala in Form No.15:
At the time of joining duty.

2.    An officer having a basic pay of Rs. 21,240, while on tour will be eligible for a daily allowance of rupees:
200.

3.    A claim for traveling allowance will not be sanctioned, if it is presented to the drawing officer or controlling officer:
After two years of due date.

4.    An L.D.Clerk entered Govt.Service on 1-3-2009. He has not taken any leave till 1-3-2012. The number of days of earned leave at his credit on 2-3-2012 F.N. is:
99.

5.    If an officer is appointed to hold full charge of another post in addition to his own, he will be eligible for special allowance as a percentage of the minimum of the scale of pay of that post. This percentage shall not exceed:
6%.

6.    If an officer is appointed to discharge the current duties of another post in addition to his own, he will be eligible for a special allowance as a percentage of the minimum of the scale of pay of the additional post. This percentage shall not exceed:
3%.

7.    Leave to officers in Foreign service will be sanctioned by:
The foreign employer.

8.    The retiring pension for 20 years of qualifying service is granted to:
Those who have completed 20 years of service without any rounding.

9.    Average emoluments for pension is:
Average of last 10 months emoluments.

10.    For the purpose of family pension, family does not include:
Unemployed married daughter above 25 years of age.

11.    Re-employed pensioners are not entitled to:
Dearness relief on pension.
12.    The maximum amount of pension that can be commuted at the time of retirement is :
40% of Pension.

13.    A pensioner died on 25-07-2012. His wife is eligible to get family pension with effect from:
01-08-2012.

14.    The  maximum amount of death cum retirement gratuity that can be granted at the time of retirement is :
Rs.7 Lakhs.

15.    A high school headmaster drawing a basic pay of Rs. 36,140 from 01-07-2011 retired on 30-04-2012 after 32 years of service. His monthly pension will be:
Rs.18,070/-.

16.    The daily allowances for the first grade officers for halt outside the state is :
Rs.350/-.

17.    A grade I officer is transferred from Wayanad to Idukki. The maximum amount eligible to him for packing, and loading /unloading at each end is:
Rs.600/-

18.    A Taluk supply officer is transferred from Station ‘A’ to Station ‘B’, 400 kms away. Only less than half the distance is directly connected by Railway. What is the maximum number of days he can avail for journey, provided the balance portion of the journey is to be performed by road?
5 days.

19.    The Daily allowance of a Fourth Grade officer on tour outside the state is :
Rs.175.

20.    A junior Inspector in Co-operative Dept. entered Govt. Service on 01-07-2009 and was drawing a basic pay of Rs. 14,980 from 1-07-2010 in the scale of pay of Rs.14620-360-14480-400-16980-440-18740-500-21240-560-24040-620-25280. Before completing probation he availed leave without allowance for taking up employment abroad for 2 years from 10-07-2010. On expiry of leave, he rejoined duty on 10-07-2012. What will be in basic pay on 01-07-2013?
Rs.14,980.

21.    An LD Clerk in Civil Supplier Dept. entered Govt. Service on 01-04-2000. He was promoted as U.D.Clerk with effect from 01-07-2009 and his pay was fixed as Rs.13,900 in the scale of pay of Rs.13,210-230-13540-360-14980-400-16980-440-18740-500-21240-560-22360.  He availed leave without allowances for 3 years from 15-07-2009. On expiry of leave he reported for duty on 15-07-2012. What will his basic pay on 1-07-2013?
Rs.14,260.

22.    The basic pay of a Govt.Servant cannot exceed the maximum of the scale of pay of the post(including stagnation increments) except in the following cases:
(a) Granting of advance increments.    (b) Granting of dearness pay.
(c) Granting of Personal pay.        (d) None of the above.
Ans: (c) Granting of Personal pay.   

23.    A Chief Engineer in P.W.D was drawing a basic pay of Rs.58,640 with effect from 01-07-2009 in the scale of pay of Rs.48640-1100-57440-1200-59840, consequent on fixation of pay based on pay revision orders 2011. What will be his basic pay on 01-07-2012?
Rs.59,840.

24.    The authority to grant a premature increment to an officer is :
The Government.

25.    The following kinds of leave will not be counted for increments:
(a)    Leave without allowances taken on medical certificate.
(b)    Leave without allowances taken otherwise than medical certificate.
(c)    Leave without allowances in continuation of maternity leave without medical certificate as provided in Rule 102, part I, KSK.
(d)    Earned leave for 3 months taken for joining spouse abroad.
Ans: Leave without allowances taken otherwise than medical certificate.

26.    An Asst. Commissioner of commercial taxes is requested by the Kerala Public Service Commission to be an examiner for valuation of answer scripts of Departmental Tests. He can undertake the work with the sanction of :
Without any sanction.

27.    An L.D.Clerk who entered Govt.service on 1-1-2005 was thrown out of service for want of vacancy on 30-04-2005. He was reappointed against an arising vacancy on 1-6-2005. He will get his first increment on :
1-2-2006.

28.    An officiating last grade servant drawing a basic pay of Rs.9190/- with effect from 01-07-2010 , in the scale of pay of Rs.8500-230-9190-250-9940-270-11020-300-12220-330-13210 was temporarily promoted on 01-07-2011 in the scale of pay of Rs.8730-230-9190-250-9940-270-11020-300-12220-330-13540 and he opted to fix his pay on the date of promotion. His basic pay on 01-07-2011 will be?
Rs.9940/-.

29.    An L.D.Clerk holding a provisional appointment was deputed for one month training and the period training was treated as duty. He will be eligible for pay and allowances for the training period.
If it is certified that he will continue in service after completion of training.
30.    An assistant in Government secretariat, Trivandrum was in maternity leave from 1-04-2011 and she availed leave without allowance without medical certificate for 60 days in continuation of maternity leave. Before entering on maternity leave she got an increment on 01-03-2011. What will be the date on which she will get the next increment?
01-03-2012.

31.    Daily allowance for halt on tour for 12 hours is :
Half D.A.

32.    An officer having a basic pay of Rs.14620/- when transferred from Kollam to Kannur can claim cost of carriage of personal effects for a maximum of :
2000 Kg.

33.    A Taluk supply officer retired from service while working at Alappuzha. Before his retirement he informed his controlling officer that he intends to reside at Trivandrum, after retirement. Travelling allowance will not be paid to him if his journey to Trivandrum is made:
After one year of retirement.

34.    The extended period service of teaching staff in Educational Institutions who completed the age of retirement during an academic year, beyond the date of retirement will count for:
Pay and allowances.

35.    The date of retirement of a high school teacher whose date of birth is 01-07-1956 will be:
30-06-2012.

36.    An L.D.Clerk in district police office, Malappuram is deputed for a training in Institute of Management in Government. Trivandrum for 3 months from 1.7.2012. He will get full D.A. for halts for:
30 days.

37.    The total period of halt of an under secretary in Govt. Secretariat, Trivandrum on tour at Ernakulam is 30 hours. His eligibility for daily allowances for halt is:
1 D.A.

38.    An assistant Gr. II in Legislative secretariat entered service as 1-7-1978. He could not complete his probation till the end of December 1980. He availed leave without allowance for 5 years from 1.1.1981 for taking up employment abroad and returned to Govt. service on 1.1.1986. He retired from service on 30-04-2012 as deputy secretary. His qualifying service for pension is:
26 years.
39.    A senior Supdt. in civil supplies department retired from service on 31-03-2011. His pension was fixed as Rs.12,777 . What will be the monthly reduced pension after commuting the maximum amount of pension?
7667.

40.    A deputy collector in collectorate, Kannur retired on 31-05-2009. His retirement benefits were authorised by the Accountant general on 14-8-2009. If he was eligible for the maximum amount of D.C.R.G, what is the actual amount of D.C.R.G received by him?
Rs.3,30,000.

41.    A Deputy Tahsildar retired from service on 31-05-2012. He was on suspension from 01-06-2011 to 31-12-2011, and the period was treated as leave without allowances. For calculating the average emoluments for pension, the period to be considered is:
The period from 01-01-2011 to 31-05-2011 and 01-01-2012 to 31-05-2012.

42.    A Deputy Superintendent of Police was suspended from service with effect from 01-02-2012 and reinstated with effect from 01-06-2012. The period of suspension was treated as duty for all purposes, except for full pay and allowances. A reduction in pay as punishment was imposed as a result of disciplinary  proceedings. He retired from service on 31-07-2012. For calculating average emoluments for pension, the period of 10 months on full pay and allowances will be:
01-10-2011 to 31-07-2012.


43.    An assistant surgeon in Health services Dept. was on leave without allowances without medical certificate from 01-01-2011 to 30-10-2011. He got an increment on 01-11-2010. His next increment will be on :
01-08-2012.

44.    A lecturer in a Govt.College was on maternity leave from 01-07-2011. On expiry of leave she reported for duty. She availed leave without allowances without Medical certificate from 01-01-2012 to 25-02-2012. If she got an increment on 01-06-2011, what is the date on which she will get the next increment?
01-07-2012.

45.    A Lady Village Extension Officer applied for maternity leave from 04-09-2011. What is the date on which she has to report for duty on expiry of leave?
02-03-2012.

46.    An L.D.Typist  entered Govt.Service on 15-07-2011. He will get his first increment on:
01-07-2012.

47.    The pay of an officer promoted to another post will be fixed on the date of promotion at the stage of higher time scale of the promoted post next above the pay in the lower time scale of pay. Thereafter fixation of pay will be allowed on the date of option, is date of increment in the lower post. This benefit will not be available to promotion to posts carrying a scale of pay:
The minimum pay of which exceeds Rs.36, 140.

48.    A high school assistant entered service on 01-06-2008. He completed his probation on 05-07-2010. He will get his second increment on :
05-07-2010.

49.    What is the date on which a High school assistant who entered service on 01-06-2008 and completed probation on 05-07-2010 will get his third increment?
01-06-2011.

50.     A Village Assistant in Revenue Dept. entered Govt.Service on 01-01-2000 F.N. His terms of appointment included a condition that he will be on probation for a minimum period of 2 years. He availed leave without allowances for 5 years from 30-12-2001 for taking employment abroad. On expiry of leave he returned to duty on 30-12-2006 F.N. What is the number of days of earned leave at his credit on 21-1-2007?
1

51.    A Junior Supdt. In Legal Metrology Dept.entered Govt. Service on 01-01-2000 F.N. What will be the number of days of Half Pay Leave in his account on 31-12-2012 F.N., if he was not availed any leave in his entire service, except earned leave for 370 days in different spells?
240.

52.    What is the number of days of half pay leave on the credit of a Blue Printer in Irrigation Dept. on 28-2-2008 A.N., if he entered Govt.Service on 01-02-1991 F.N. and availed no leave during his entire service except commuted leave from 01-01-2008 to 28-02-2008?
202.

53.    A permanent Glass Blower in Chemical Examiners Laboratory who entered Govt.service on 01-05-2000 was granted leave not due for 30 days from 01-04-2009. He has not taken any leave after 30-04-2009. What is the no.of days of half pay leave he had on 01-07-2011?
30.

54.    A Joint secretary in Finance Secretariat who has more than 100 days each of earned leave and half pay leave at his credit, propose to apply for leave from 01-07-2012 to 01-10-2012, for joining spouse abroad, he is eligible to apply for?
Leave without allowances.

55.    The leave earned by a female officer, while in service includes:
Earned Leave.

56.    The date of increment of a Bacteriologist in Health services Dept. is 01-10-2011. He availed leave without allowances other than on medical certificate for 30 days from 01-08-2012. What is the date on which he is eligible for the next increment?
01-10-2012.

57.    An excise guard in Excise Dept. entered Govt.Service on 01-01-1991 F.N. If he has no eligible leave at his credit on 01-01-2001, and has not availed any leave after 01-01-2001, what is the minimum number of days of earned leave at his credit on 31-12-2010 A.N.?
300.

58.    A Finance officer drawing a basic pay of Rs.22, 360 has no eligible leave at credit and is on leave without allowances for treatment of mental diseases. He is eligible for a monthly ex-gratia allowance of :
Rs.7,826/-.

59.    An Assistant Engineer, PWD working on Thrissur was placed under suspension. He is permitted to reside at Ernakulam during the period of suspension. He is required to attend a departmental enquiry at Trivandrum. His eligibility for Travelling allowance is:
Tour T.A. from Ernakulam to Trivandrum and back.

60.    Emoluments for calculation of death-cum –retirement gratuity includes:
Basic Pay and Dearness Allowance.

61.    An Agricultural assistant in agriculture Dept. died in an accident. He got a total service of 12 years. The amount eligible as D.C.R.G is :
12 times the emoluments.

62.    A curator in Fisheries Dept. retired from service on 30-04-2012. If he applies for commutation of pension on 01-06-2013 and gets his sanctioned and paid in the same month, what will be date on which the commuted amount of pension will be restored to him?
01-07-2024.

63.    An additional secretary to Govt. retired from service on 30-06-2012. For the last one year of service he was drawing charge allowance for holding full additional charge of another post. He was also in receipt of special pay in lieu of higher time scale of pay. The items to be considered for calculating average emoluments for pension are:
Basic pay and special pay.

64.    What is the rate at which Family pension is given at the first instance, in respect of a Govt.Servant died, while in service?
(a)    30% of basic pay.
(b)    50% of basic pay, subject to a maximum of the normal rate of pension.
(c)    50% of basic pay without any limitations.
(d)    None of these.
Ans: None of these.
65.    Reemployed pensioners who retired after 6-6-2000 are eligible for:
Basic pay last drawn (excluding basic pension) and allowances for the full amount.

66.    When a Gazetted officer retires from service before his pension is finally fixed, the Audit officer shall issue authorization sanctioning:
100% of probable pension as anticipatory pension and 75% of D.C.R.G.

67.    A high school headmaster retired from service on 31-03-2010. His date of birth is 20-07-1954. He was granted a monthly pension of Rs.14,987. On 25-07-2012, he submitted an application for commuting 40% of his pension. What is his commuted value of pension?
Rs.7,52,367.

68.    An officer retired on 31-03-2010. He was born on 20-07-1954. He applied for commutation of pension on 25-07-2012. If reduced pension after commutation was given from 01-09-2012 onwards, what is the date from which he will get full pension after restoration of the commuted portion?
01-09-2023.

69.    The service book  of a retired officer should be kept in safe custody for the prescribed period by:
Head of office at the time of retirement.

70.    An Assistant Engineer working in a mind Govt.Dept. was discharged from service due to abolition of the post. He is eligible for:
Compensation Pension.

71.    An associate Professor in medical college, Trivandrum voluntarily retired from service after completing 25 years of service. He is eligible for:
Retiring pension.

72.    A Govt.servant working at Kollam attended obligatory departmental tests for 5 days in January 2012 at Kannur, even though Kollam was also a centre. He is eligible for:
Only the dates of test being treated as duty.

73.    A permanent Junior Supdt. working at Palakkad is appointed as Deputy Collector as advised by the Kerala Public Service Commission and posted at Trivandrum. He is eligible for:
Transfer T.A corresponding to the grade of Junior Supdt.

74.    A Govt.servant should obtain special permission of Govt:
To apply for a patent for an invention made by him, in the course of his official duties involving scientific research.

75.    A High school Assistant in Education Dept. drawing a basic pay of Rs.16,980 with effect from 01-07-2011 was an maternity leave from 01-08-2011 to 27-01-2012 followed by leave without allowances from 28-01-2012 to 29-02-2012. She reported for duty on 01-03-2012 and again availed leave without allowances without medical certificate from 10-03-2012 to 25-03-2012. What is the date on which she will get the next increment?
01-07-2012.

76.    An assistant in Govt.Secretariat, Trivandrum drawing a basic pay of Rs.14,260 with effect from 01-07-2011 got appointed as L.D.Clerk in Civil Supplies Dept. in his native district of Kasargode. He joined duty at Kasaragod on 01-07-2012. The scale of pay of L.D. Clerk is Rs.9940-270-11020-300-12220-330-13540-360-14980-400-16580. His pay as L.D.Clerk will be fixed as :
Rs.9,940.

77.    A Gazetted officer is deputed for a training course for one year by the Govt, treating the period as duty. Another officer may be promoted to the post:
By the Govt.

78.    The services of an officer in Taluk Office, Kollam is requested by a private firm for 3 hours every day out of office hours and without detriment to his official duties. This request can be granted by:
The Govt.

79.    A last grade employee availed leave without allowances for six months, to treat his wife who was seriously injured in an accident. There was no eligible leave at his credit and he was in a financially difficult position. In such cases, the period of LWA can be counted for increments:
By the Govt.

80.    An officiating L.D.Clerk drawing a basic pay of Rs.12,220 from 01-07-2011 in the scale of pay of Rs.9940-270-11020-300-12220-330-13540-360-14980-400-16580 is promoted as U.D.Clerk with effect from 01-07-2012 in the scale of pay Rs.13210-330-13540-360-14980-400-16580-440-18740-500-21240-560-22360. He opted for fixation of pay as U.D.Clerk on the date of promotion. His pay will be fixed as :
Rs.13,210.

81.    The different kinds of travelling allowances does not include:
Dearness allowance.
82.    A Deputy Collector in Collectorate, Kollam who went on tour to Ernakulam was provided accommodation at Guest House Ernakulam at reduced rates. His eligibility for daily allowance is :
Full D.A.

83.    A Deputy Collector in Collectorate, Trivandrum inspected Taluk Office, Nedumangad, which is at a distance of 20 kms, on 05-06-2012 and 6-6-2012. The number of days he can avail for journey is :
Nil.

84.    A block development officer working at Kannur was transferred to Kottayam. Being a native of Kollam, he is proposed to shift his family to Kollam. The eligibility for transfer Travelling allowance is :
The BDO will get T.A. from Kannur to Kottayam and his family from Kannur to Kollam, but limited to that admissible up to Kottayam.

85.    A sub treasury officer working in Mavelikkara applied for direct selection as Deputy Collector, and he was called for a written test by the K.P.S.C. at a centre in Ernakulam. He requested to draw travelling allowance for his journey to Ernakulam and back to Mavelikkara. His request can be sanctioned only by :
The Govt.

86.    A District Information Officer working in Alappuzha was transferred to Malappuram on 01-12-2011. His wife, who is a Junior Supdt. in revenue Dept. in Alappuzha was transferred to Malappuram on 01-06-2012. Their eligibility for transfer travelling allowance is :
Both of them can claim separate T.A.

87.    An officer is transferred from Kottayam to Kollam. His residence at Kottayam is 5Kms away from Railway station and at Kollam is 7.5 Kms away from Railway Station. For transportation of personal effects he will get:
Only admissible rates for railway portion an no road mileage.

88.    An inspector of factories and boilers with head quarters at Trivandrum was on tour at Ernakulam from 01-06-2012 to 24-06-2012(excluding the period from 10-06-2012 to 15-06-2012, when he was an official duty at Kozhikkode). His eligibility  for full daily allowance for halts is :
Eligible for full D.A. for entire period.

89.    A Deputy Secretary in Advocate General’s office, Ernakulam was on tour at Trivandrum from 07-06-2012 to 13-06-2012,09-06-2012 and 10-06-2012 being holidays, he left Trivandrum on 08-06-2012 evening and returned to Trivandrum on 11-06-2012 morning, after visiting Kovalam and Kannyakumari, without any official programme. As part his travelling allowance, his eligibility for daily allowance for halt is :
For the entire period, excluding the period from 08-06-2012 evening to 11-06-2012 morning, when he was out of camp without official duties.

90.    The District Medical Officer, Palakkad is deputed for a training at New Delhi from 01-06-2012 to 31-07-2012. During the period of training, he was absent on casual leave from 15-06-2012 to 20-06-2012, and was away from New Delhi with prior permission. He will get full daily allowance for halts:
For 24 days.

91.    A retired Govt. servant commuted Rs.4,000 from his pension and he is drawing a reduced amount of Rs.6,000 as monthly pension. He is reemployed in service with a basic pay of Rs.12,000. For claiming travelling allowances, he will be treated as:
Grade II (a) officer.

92.    A Grade I officer having a basic pay of Rs.33,680, with headquarters at Thrissur was an official duty at New Delhi from 11-06-2012 to 13-06-2012. He was directed by the Head of Dept. to stay at New Delhi on 14-06-2012 to attend to some additional official duties. He cancelled his Air Ticket for the return journey on 14-06-2012 and left New Delhi on 15-06-2012 in first class train, in the absence of availability of Air Ticket. The delayed departure makes him eligible for:
Cancellation charges of Air Ticket and First class train fare for return journey.

93.    The date of birth of a Chief Radiographer in Health Services Dept.is 01-04-1956. The date of his retirement is :
31-03-2011.

94.    The date of retirement of a Govt.Servant is :
The last date of the month in which he completes the age of retirement.

95.    The period from 30th January 2012 to 2nd  March 2012 will be treated as:
1 month and 2 days.

96.    An assistant in Govt. Secretariat, Trivandrum attended office late by one hour on 30-12-2011, without previous permission. As he had already attended office late without previous permission on two previous days the only one day casual leave left in his account was forfeited. He was again late by an hour on 31-12-2011. This absence can be regularized by:
Recording the late attendance and ignoring it.

97.    A senior Superintendent in Civil Supplies Dept. was on leave without allowances from 01-07-2012 to 20-08-2012. In connection with a disciplinary case, he was suspended from service by an order dated 10-07-2012. A copy of the order was received by the officer only on 20-07-2012. He will be eligible for subsistence allowance with effect from:
21-08-2012.

98.    An officer under suspension died before completion of disciplinary proceedings. The period of suspension will be treated as :
Duty.

99.    From the subsistence allowance of a Govt.Servant under suspension, deductions shall be made for the following:
(a)    Subscription to general provident fund.
(b)    Income Tax
(c)    Amount due to court attachments
(d)    Recovery of loss for which he is responsible.
Ans: Income Tax.

100.    An officer transferred to a place 550km away from his headquarters will get a minimum journey time of :
2 days.