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Monday, 26 February 2018


EXAM HELD ON 12.10.2017.

1. Which article of Indian constitution deals with ‘General Election’ ?
(A) Article 321 (B) Article 312 (C) Article 330 (D) Article 331
Ans: Question deleted.
Right answer is Article 324. Laws pertaining to the elections in India are contained in Part XV of the Indian Constitution. The provisions mentioned in the Articles (324 to 329) cover all aspects of conducting elections starting from inclusion of names in electoral roll to formulation of laws pertaining to elections.

2. Who is the Hajj affairs minister of Kerala ?
(A) A.C. Moideen (B) K.T. Jaleel (C) T.K. Hamza (D) G. Sudakaran
Ans: (B).

3. Which is the Headquarters of Calicut University ?
(A) Karyavattom (B) Mannuthi (C) Thrikkakara (D) Tenhippalam

4. Who is the first Keralite Oscar winner ?
(A) Vincent (B) P.J. Antony
(C) Rasool Pukkutty (D) Hariharan

5. Dum Dum Airport of Kolkotta is renamed as __________ .
(A) Jyothibasu Airport (B) Rabindranath Tagore Airport
(C) Subash Chandra Bose Airport (D) Chathrapathi Shivaji Airport

6. ‘Upanishads’ generally deals with __________ .
(A) Philosophy (B) Vyakarana (C) Way of Life (D) Meditation
Ans: (A).

7. ‘Yasoda’ was the __________ of Buddha.
(A) Sister (B) Mother (C) Daughter (D) Wife
Ans: (D).

8. Which of the following was the centre of Sangam literature ?
(A) Mahodayapuram (B) Madurai
(C) Puhar (D) Kaveripattanam
Ans: (B).

9. Gandhiji’s first involvement in Indian political affairs was in __________ .
(A) Champaran Satyagraha (B) Anti - Rowlatt Act Campaign
(C) Salt Satyagraha (D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Ans: (B).

10. Salt Satyagraha in Kerala was at __________ .
(A) Payyannur (B) Kozhikode (C) Kodungallur (D) Kochi
Ans: (A).

11. Who was elected as the President of Central Legislative Assembly in 1925 as a representative
of Swarajist party ?
(A) Motilal Nehru (B) Vithal Bai Patel
(C) C.R. Das (D) Vallabai Patel
Ans: (B)

12. How many persons signed in ‘Malayali Memorial’ of 1891?
(A) 10048 (B) 10038 (C) 10018 (D) 10028
Ans: (D).

13. The first railway line in Kerala runs between __________ .
(A) Bepore and Tirur (B) Ernakulam and Thrissiveperur
(C) Kayamkulam and Shornnur (D) Kozhikode and Kannur
Ans: (A).

14. Who among the following is not a member of Cabinet Mission ?
(A) Pathik Lawrence (B) Strafford Cripps
(C) A.V. Alexander (D) Jhon Simon
Ans: (D).

15. Gandhi - Irwin Pact was in __________ .
(A) 1921 (B) 1931 (C) 1929 (D) 1932
Ans: (B).

16. Who is the author of ‘Neel Darpan’ ?
(A) Arabindo Gosh (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Deenbandhu Mitra (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans: (C).

17. Which one of the following was not the aim of Non-Co-operation Movement ?
(A) Attainment of Complete Independence
(B) Attainment of Swaraj
(C) Solution to Punjab problem
(D) Solution to Khilafath Issue
Ans: (A).

18. Who among the following is not the leader of Khilafath Movement ?
(A) Moulana Mohamedali (B) Moulana Shoukathali
(C) Hakim Ajmal Khan (D) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Ans: (D).

19. Who was the leader of ‘Pookottur war’ which occurred during Malabar Rebellion of 1921 ?
(A) Ali Musliyar (B) Vadakkeveettil Mohamed
(C) Karadan Moideen (D) Seethikoya Thangal
Ans: (B).

20. Which one of the following was not the feature of India Act of 1935 ?
(A) All India Federation (B) Provincial Autonomy
(C) Provincial Dyarchy (D) Separate Electorate
Ans: (C).

21. Sphenomandibular ligament is a remnant of :
(A) 1st Pharyngeal arch (B) 2nd Pharyngeal arch
(C) 3rd Pharyngeal arch (D) 4th Pharyngeal arch
Ans: (A).

22. Secretomotor innervation of parotid gland is derived from :
(A) Superior Salivatory nucleus (B) Inferior salivatory nucleus
(C) Nucleus tractus solitarius (D) Lacrimatory nucleus
Ans: (B).

23. Which of the following muscles of tongue is NOT supplied by hypoglossal nerve ?
(A) Styloglossus (B) Hyoglossus (C) Genioglossus (D) Palatoglossus
Ans: (D).

24. All are branches of external carotid artery EXCEPT :
(A) Inferior thyroid artery (B) Lingual artery
(C) Facial artery (D) Occipital artery
Ans: (A).

25. Which of the following muscles is the depressor of temporomandibular joint ?
(A) Temporalis (B) Massetor
(C) Lateral pterygoid (D) Medial pterygoid
Ans: (C).

26. Which is the main form of transport of CO2 in blood ?
(A) Carbamino Hb (B) Dissolved form
(C) Carbonic acid (D) Bicarbonate
Ans: (D).

27. Hemoglobin is converted to bilirubin in :
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Bone marrow (D) Kidney
Ans: (B).

28. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is :
(A) Glutamate (B) Glycine (C) GABA (D) Ach
Ans: (A).

29. Maximum absorption of water takes place in :
(A) Collecting duct (B) Distal convoluted tubule
(C) Proximal convoluted tubule (D) Loop of Henle
Ans: (C).

30. Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to :
(A) Albumin (B) Fibrinogen (C) RBC (D) Electrolytes
Ans: (A).

31. Chromosomal abnormality associated with Chronic myeloid leukaemia is :
(A) t(8;21) (B) t(9;22) (C) del 5q- (D) t(15;16)
Ans: (B).

32. __________ is a feature of chronic inflammation.
(A) Keloid (B) Suppuration
(C) Granulation tissue (D) Granuloma
Ans: (D).

33. Following are components of Virchow’s triad except :
(A) emboli (B) hypercoagulability
(C) altered blood flow (D) endothelial injury
Ans: (A).

34. Among the following, __________ is a proto oncogene.
(A) p53 (B) Rb (C) APC (D) cERB B2
Ans: (D).

35. Which of the following findings is seen in red blood cells in Megaloblastic anemia ?
(A) Macropolycyte (B) Dohle bodies (C) Cabot rings (D) Dutcher body
Ans: (C).

36. Which among the following is an Ionotropic Receptor ?
(A) GABAA Receptor (B) D1 Receptor
(C) Muscarinic Receptor (D) D2 Receptor
Ans: (A).

37. Therapeutic Index is expressed as :

(A) LD50

(B)  LD50×ED50 

(C) ED50

(D) LD1

Ans: (A).

38. Acute development of tolerance after rapid and repeated administration of drugs at short
intervals is :
(A) Tachyphylaxis (B) Idiosyncrasy
(C) Cross tolerance (D) Metabolic tolerance
Ans: (A).

39. In which phase of clinical trial pharmacological evaluation of the new drug is performed on
healthy volunteers ?
(A) Phase III (B) Phase II (C) Phase I (D) Phase IV
Ans: (C).

40. Alcoholic extracts of plant drugs are called :
(A) Elixirs (B) Tinctures (C) Emulsion (D) Linctus
Ans: (B).

41. Choose the best dietary source of Vitamin C from the following :
(A) Meat (B) Milk (C) Citrus fruits (D) Egg
Ans: (C).

42. The protein digesting enzyme present in the stomach :
(A) Cathepsin (B) Chymotrypsin (C) Pepsin (D) Trypsin
Ans: (C).

43. The sugar of milk :
(A) Galactose (B) Lactose (C) Maltose (D) Sucrose
Ans: (B).

44. Tetany is manifested in :
(A) Respiratory alkalosis (B) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(C) Lactic acidosis (D) Respiratory acidosis
Ans: (A).

45. One of the following test is not useful to assess kidney function :
(A) Plasma Urea (B) Plasma Cretinine
(C) Plasma Creatine (D) Plasma Cystatin
Ans: (C).

46. Which of the following bacterial cultures show red fluorescence when exposed to UV light ?
(A) Bacteriodes fragilis (B) Porphyromonas gingivalis
(C) Prevotella melanogenica (D) Fusobacterium nucleatum
Ans: (C).

47. Which is the causative agent of Dental caries ?
(A) Streptococcus mutans (B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Enterococcus (D) Streptococcus agalactiae
Ans: (A).

48. Mechanism of Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is :
(A) Transformation (B) Conjugation (C) Transduction (D) Mutation
Ans: (D).

49. Which of the following viral markers is first to appear in blood after infection with
Hepatitis B virus ?
(A) HBs Ag (B) HBe Ag
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
 Ans: (A).

50. Hard chancre is characteristic of :
(A) Primary syphilis (B) Secondary syphilis
(C) Tertiary syphilis (D) None of the above
Ans: (A).

51. Electric pulp tests are known to be unreliable in young permanent teeth, because :
(A) late development of dentinal tubular fluid dynamics
(B) the relatively late development of A delta fibres
(C) the late development of Tome’s fibres
(D) pain threshold is inconsistent in children
Ans: (B).

52. In SI/STA Classification of dental caries; SI 1 is applied to :
(A) Pit and Fissure caries (B) Proximal Surface Caries
(C) Root Caries (D) Smooth Surface Caries
Ans: (A).

53. C-factor of class I cavity is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Ans: (C).

54. What does the term SCAP in an immature, permanent tooth denote ?
(A) surgical closure of apical foramen
(B) a unique population of dental mesenchymal stem cells
(C) retrograde apical sealing technique
(D) apical barrier apexification procedure
Ans: (B).

55. The angle the blade makes with the central longitudinal axis of the endodontic file is
called :
(A) Cutting Angle (B) Rake Angle
(C) Clearance Angle (D) Helix Angle
Ans: (D).

56. The extent of facial and lingual cervical contours for maxillary teeth from the CEJ is
approximately :
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1.0 mm (C) 1.5 mm (D) 2.0 mm
Ans: (A).

57. Who first introduced the term “Dead tracts” in dentin ?
(A) Anders Retzius (B) Von Ebner (C) Wilfred Fish (D) K. Kawasaki
 Ans: (C).

58. How many teeth are seen in the Orthopantomogram (OPG) of a 6 months old child ?
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 34
Ans: (D).

59. RANK-RANKL-OPG signaling pathway is important in regulating the differentiation and
activation of which cells ?
(A) Osteoblasts (B) Osteoclasts (C) T-Lymphocytes (D) B-Lymphocytes
Ans: (B).

60. Which non-keratinocyte has desmosomal attachment with adjacent cells ?
(A) Merkel cells (B) Mast cells (C) Melanocytes (D) Langerhans cells
Ans: (A).

61. Postzygotic mutation of GNAS1 gene in a somatic cell leads to the formation of :
(A) Pagets Disease (B) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
(C) Fibrous Dysplasia (D) Ectodermal Dysplasia
Ans: (C).

62. The gene for the production of Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (Factor XI) is located on :
(A) Chromosome X (B) Chromosome Y
(C) Chromosome 6 (D) Chromosome 4
Ans: (D).

63. Congenital unilateral ptosis, with rapid elevation of the ptotic eyelid occurring on movement
of the mandible to the contralateral side is called :
(A) Marcus Gunn Syndrome (B) Marin Amat Syndrome
(C) Horner’s Syndrome (D) Gorham’s Syndrome
Ans: (A).

64. In OLEP Staging system for Oral leukoplakia, which one of the following lesion is included
in Stage III ?
(A) L1P0 (B) L1P1 (C) L2P0 (D) L3P1
Ans: (B).

65. Which is the most common salivary neoplasm arising from an odontogenic cyst ?
(A) Acinic Cell Carcinoma (B) Adeno Carcinoma
(C) Mucoepidemoid Carcinoma (D) Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma
Ans: (C).

66. Open bites, associated with craniofacial syndromes is a deviation from normal in :
(A) Vertical plane (B) Horizontal plane
(C) Transverse plane (D) Occlusal plane
 Ans: (A).

67. Highest form of clinical evidence in hierarchy of quality that exists to guide clinical decision
is :
(A) Randomized control trials (B) Retrospective study
(C) Meta analysis (D) Prospective study
Ans: (C).

68. Among the following which tooth calcification is commonly associated with assessment of
skeletal maturity ?
(A) Maxillary central incisor (B) Mandibular canine
(C) Maxillary first molar (D) Mandibular first molar
Ans: (B).

69. The personality considered as forerunner of rapid maxillary expander is :
(A) Norman Kingsley (B) Vigo Andresen
(C) Hyrax (D) Emerson C Angell
Ans: (D).

70. Which among the following techniques cannot enhance the rate of tooth movement ?
(A) Application of vibration to tooth
(B) Application of heat to teeth and alveolar bone
(C) Application of light to alveolar process
(D) Application of ultrasound to teeth and surroundings
Ans: (B).

71. Genetic theory of Growth was put forward by :
(A) Brodie in 1941 (B) Pertovic in 1974
(C) Moss in 1962 (D) Sicher in 1955
Ans: (A).

72. In cephalometrics, pterygoid vertical plane (PTV) is :
(A) Line through Nasion (N) perpendicular to PH plane
(B) Line perpendicular to FH plane through Pt point
(C) Tangent to inferior border of Mandible through Pt point
(D) Line parallel to Pterygoid process
Ans: (B).

73. Which is not a mixed Dentition Analysis ?
(A) Huckaba’s Analysis (B) Ashley Hower’s Analysis
(C) Hixon and Old father Method (D) Tanaka and Johnston Analysis
 Ans: (B).

74. Kinectic Cavity Preparation :
(A) is Painless
(B) there is no vibration or pressure to cause microfracture that weakens tooth
(C) local anesthesia is always needed
(D) works quietly
Question deleted.

75. Which is not a complication associated with stainless steel crown ?
(A) Crown tilt (B) Inhalation or Ingestion
(C) Interproximal ledge (D) Premature contacts well tolerated by child
Ans: (D).

76. Collimators are made up of :
(A) Tungsten (B) Molybdenum (C) Copper (D) Lead
Ans: (D).

77. Cystic, keratin filled nodules seen along the mid palatine raphae :
(A) Bohn’s nodules (B) Lateral periodontal cyst
(C) Epstein pearls (D) Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst
Ans: (C).

78. Herpangina is caused by :
(A) Coxsackie virus (B) Cytomegalovirus
(C) Herpes virus (D) None
Ans: (A).

79. Restrainer in developing solution :
(A) Potassium bromide (B) Sodium sulfite
(C) Sodium hydroxide (D) Potassium hydroxide
Ans: (A).

80. Dimension of occlusal film :
(A) 50 mm × 75 mm (B) 57 mm × 76 mm
(C) 55 mm × 75 mm (D) 50 mm × 76 mm
Ans: (B).

81. Which among the following study designs is best suited for estimation of relative risk ?
(A) Cross sectional study (B) Cohort study
(C) Case control study (D) Randomized control trial
Ans: (B).

82. Each study subject also serves as a control in :
(A) Concurrent parallel trial (B) Cohort study
(C) Quasi experimental study (D) Cross over trial
Ans: (D).

83. Which of the following is the most cost effective technique for prevention of caries ?
(A) Community water fluoridation
(B) Use of fluoride dentifrice
(C) Professional application of fluoride varnish
(D) Knutson’s technique
Ans: (A).

84. Identify the third generation chemical plaque control agent from the following :
(A) Sangunarine (B) Phenols (C) Chlorhexidine (D) Delmopinol
Ans: (D).

85. Incidence can be obtained from :
(A) Cross sectional study (B) Case Control study
(C) Longitudinal study (D) Ecological study
Ans: (C).

86. The predominance of plasma cells is thought to be a primary characteristic of :
(A) Advanced lesion (B) Early lesion
(C) Established lesion (D) Initial lesion
Ans: (C).

87. The cytokeratins which are expressed in the junctional epithelium are :
(A) K4 and K13 (B) K5 and K14 (C) K6 and K16 (D) K1 and K2
Ans: (B).

88. The technique that surgically removes the pocket wall is :
(A) Undisplaced flap (B) Modified Widman flap
(C) Papilla preservation flap (D) Conventional flap
Ans: (A).

89. Which of the following electronic probe is capable of locating the cementoenamel junction ?
(A) Interprobe (B) Foster Miller probe
(C) Periprobe (D) Florida probe
Ans: (B).

90. Which of the following is a sulcular brushing technique ?
(A) Modified Stillman technique (B) Fones technique
(C) Charters technique (D) Bass technique
Ans: (D).

91. Amount of Lignocaine present in 2cc of 2% LA solution is :
(A) 40 mg (B) 20 mg (C) 400 mg (D) 0.4 mg
Ans: (A).

92. The pathognomonic sign of fracture mandible is :
(A) Deranged occlusion (B) Displacement
(C) Open Bite (D) Sublingual Hematoma
Ans: (D).

93. The direction of first force applied in extracting upper anterior tooth is :
(A) Rotational (B) Buccal (C) Apical (D) Palatal
Ans: (C).

94. Sodium metabisulphite is added to local anaesthetic solution as :
(A) Vasoconstrictor
(B) Principal active ingredient
(C) Anti oxidant to protect vasoconstrictor
(D) Antifungal Agent
Ans: (C).

95. Which of the following is the drug of choice in Anaphylactic shock ?
(A) Sodium Nitroprusside (B) Adrenalin
(C) Phenergan (D) Deriphylline
Ans: (B).

96. Gypsum is :
(A) CaSO4.2H2O (B) (CaSO4)2.H2O (C) H2SO4 (D) CaSO4
Ans: (A).

97. Freeway space =
(A) occlusal vertical dimension + rest vertical dimension
(B) occlusal vertical dimension − rest vertical dimension
(C) rest vertical dimension − occlusal vertical dimension
(D) rest vertical dimension
Ans: (C).

98. In RPD, border of maxillary major connector should be at least __________ away from the
gingival crevice of teeth.
(A) 5 mm (B) 6 mm (C) 6 cm (D) 5 cm
Ans: (B).

99. In tooth preparation for fixed partial dentures and crowns, bevel should be prepared in :
(A) non functional cusp (B) functional cusp
(C) in both cusps (D) none
Ans: (B).

100. Type of minor connector in removable partial denture that is not required to be rigid :
(A) connects denture base to major connector
(B) join clasp assembly to major connector
(C) join indirect retainer to major connector
(D) approach arm for Bar type clasp
Ans: (D).
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