SOLVED PAPER OF RESERVE CONDUCTOR IN KERALA STATE ROAD TRANSPORT CORPORATION (KSRTC)/ WOMEN POLICE CONSTABLE IN POLICE DEPARTMENT.

SOLVED PAPER OF RESERVE CONDUCTOR IN KERALA STATE ROAD TRANSPORT CORPORATION (KSRTC)/ WOMEN POLICE CONSTABLE IN POLICE DEPARTMENT.
EXAM HELD ON 26-07-2008  QUESTION PAPER CODE 161/2008

1.    Cuttack is on which river bank:
Mahanadi.

2.    Vandematharam is composed by :

Bankimchandra Chatterjee.

3.    Pigment gives red colour to blood:
Hemoglobin.

4.    The mixture of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid:
Aquaregia.

5.    In colour blindness with which colour red is confused?
Green.

6.    Question Deleted.

7.    Perumon tragedy is related with:
Ashtamudi Lake.

8.    India’s first television centre started in :
1959.

9.    Real name of …………….was Edson Arantes do Nascinento.
Pele.

10.    Yakshagana is the dance form of :
Karnataka.

11.    A device which converts light energy into electric energy:
Photoelectric cell.

12.    The longest railway tunnel in India is on :
Konkan Railway.

13.    Blood group of universal recipient:
AB.

14.    Price of an inland letter is :
Rs.2.50.

15.    Who said “Things are numbers”?
Pythagoras.

16.    A pulse is considered as a substitute for milk:
Soyabean.

17.    The part of the potato do we eat:
Underground stem.

18.    The gas combines with rain water and acid rain :
Sulpherdioxide.

19.    Main function of intestinal villi is to :
Provide a large surface area.

20.    The disorder somnambulism is commonly known as :
Sleep walking.

21.    Baking powder is :
Sodium bicarbonate.

22.    First woman to lead delegation to the United Nations?
Vijaya Laxmi Pandit.

23.    Number of vertebrae in human skeleton:
33.

24.    Harijan Asram is founded by Gandhiji at:
Sabarmati.

25.    World Heart Day is on :
Last Sunday of September.

26.    The second host of tapeworm:
Pig.

27.    “Coolie” is written by :

Mulk Raj Anand.

28.    Galapagos islands are linked with :
Studies on evolution.

29.    Subject deals with life and death of human beings:
Vital statistics.

30.    First woman Cosmonaut  from India:
Kalpana Chawla.

31.    Indian Institute of Sciences is in :
Bangalore.

32.    S.P.C.A stands for:
Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Animals.

33.    Founder of Brahma Samaj:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

34.    “Woods are lovely dark and deep
But I have promises to keep
And miles to go before I sleep
And miles to go before I sleep:
These lines are belongs to:
Robert Frost.

35.    ‘Bird Man of India”?
Salim Ali.

36.    The vitamin that helps in blood clotting:
Vitamin K.

37.    Largest producer of Thorium in the World:
Kerala.

38.    The acid present in tea:
Tanic Acid.

39.    Cotton belongs to the family of :
Malvaceae.

40.    Biogas contains:
Methane.

41.    The scientist who worked on genetics:
Mendel.

42.    National award given to Best Actress:
Urvasi Award.

43.    A cube has numerically equal volume and surface area. The volume of such a cube is :
216 units.

44.    The element present in all organic compounds:
Carbon.

45.    The author of “Hindu View of Life”:
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan.

46.    The importance of ozone layer is :
It acts as a protective layer from U.V.rays.

47.    Mosaic disease of pulses is caused by:
Virus.

48.    Hyperglycemia is due to:
Excess of sugar in blood.

49.    Bones present in a human adult:
206.

50.    Mobile part of an atom:
Electron.

51.    The synonym of “weak” is :
Feeble.

52.    The synonym of “holy” is :
Sacred.

53.    The antonym of “bold” is :
Timid.

54.     Mr. John is ………..European.
a

55.    Keep quiet,……….?
Can’t you.

56.    ……………..breaking his leg, he hurt his arm.
As well as.

57.    Necessity is the …….. of invention.
Mother.

58.    There is something wrong,……….?
isn’t there.

59.    A motor car is kept in a ………..
Garage.

60.    Young one of a cat is ……
Kitten.

61.    ……… is a carnivorous animal.
Tiger.

62.    A fleet of ……..
Ships.

63.    Which of the following word is correctly spelt?
(A) separate    (B) separate    (C) seperete    (D) seperat
Ans:separate.

64.    Which of the following word is wrongly spelt?
(A) formaly    (B) format    (C) forge    (D) forfeit.
Ans: Formaly.

65.    “Please help me”. This is an ……….sentence.
imperative.

66.    “Post mortem” means:
After death.

67.    Scientific study of the eye and its diseases is :
Ophthalmology.

68.    Which of the following is a correct plural noun?
(A) sisters in law    (B) sister in law
(C) sister in laws    (D) sisters in laws.
Ans: (A) sisters in law.

69.    He ran ………the road.
across.

70.    Raju is displeased ……. his wife.
with

71.    If A:B=2:3 and C:B= 5:6, then A:C is :
4:5.

72.    If 12 people can finish a job by 5 days, how many days will be required to finish the same job by 10 people?
6.

73.    If STEP is represented by QRCN then  LION is equivalent to :
JGML.

74.    A shirt is sold for Rs.440. Profit obtained is 10%, then the actual value of the shirt is :
400.

75.    Value of 1+2+3+………+20 is :
400.

76.    If ART is represented by 2697 then TAP is represented by :
72611.

77.    If 1/3 of a number is 13 then double of that number is :
78.

78.    If 27 times of a number is 1728 then the number is :
64.

79.    If we add 25 to 90% of a number, we get  the number. Then the number is :
250.

80.    If there are 3 numbers such that the double of the first number is the second number and double of the second number is the third number. If the average of these three numbers is 210 then the first number is :
90.

81.    If the difference of the squares of two consecutive even numbers is 44 then one of the  number is :
10.

82.    If 3 numbers are in the ratio of 1:3:4 and average of these numbers is 56, then one of these numbers is :
84.

83.    If the following numbers are written in increasing order which will be the third digit of the number containing in the centre:
631,586,613, 535, 678, 574, 547.
Ans:6.

84.    Numbers 2, 4, 6, 8 are given. Using these numbers how many 4 digit numbers can be constructed without repeating the digits:
24.

85.    What is the value of  √3 x √12 x √27  √48 ?
216.

86.     Find the smallest number which gives the remainder 2 when it is divided by 15, 6 and 9.
92.

87.    What is the value of :

Ans: 8/3.

88.    Value of 

   is :

Ans:15.

89.    nth term of the series:

 Ans:

90.    If CAT is represented by DEBCUV then DOG is equivalent to :
EFPQHI.

91.     If  

        then     

             is :
Ans:14.

92.    If two numbers are in the ration of 1:3 and their least common multiple is 45 then one of the number is :
45.

93.    If SMART is represented by TNBSU, then PENCIL is equivalent to :
QFODJM

94.    Find the missing term of the sequence:
2,3,5,10, …………
Ans: 20.

95.    Value of 1/2 + 2/3 + 3/4  is :
23/12.

96.    Odd among the following is :
(A) Circle (B)Sphere    (C) Rectangle     (D) Parallelogram.
Ans : Sphere.

97.    Value of











Ans: 4.

98.    Biggest among the following is :
(A) 30/31    (B) 61/63    (C) 8/9        (D) 29/30.
Ans: 61/63.

99.    Simplified form of

                 is :

100.    Double of which number is one fourth of 48 :
6.

INDIA FREEDOM QUIZ/INDIA INDEPENDENCE QUIZ (PART II)

1.    Who was the Governor General of India when the first war of India’s independence broke out in 1857?
Lord Canning.

2.    The first session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by:
Womesh Chander Banerjee.

3.    Who set up the Indian Independence League?
Rash Bihari Bose.

4.    Who once remarked “ Nehru is patriot while Jinnah is a Politician”
Mohammed Iqbal.

5.    Where was the Civil disobedience movement launched in 1922?
Bardoli.

6.    When was the Non-Cooperation movement suspended?
1922.

7.    Which movement marked Gandhiji’s entry into national politics?
Champaran Movement.

8.    The first weekly paper published by the Indian National Congress in 1889?
Voice of India.

9.    Who is the founder of Ghadar party?
Lala Hardayal.

10.    Name of the commission which was appointed by the British Government to probe the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
The Hunter Commission.

11.    Who was the first to describe the mutiny of 1857 as the first war of independence?
Vinayak Samodar Savarkar.

12.    Who was elected as the President of All India Khilafat Conference held in Delhi in 1919?
Mahatma Gandhi.

13.    Which renowned musician sung the famous song “Raghupathi Raghav Rajaram” during the Dandi march?
Vishnu Digambar Paluskar.

14.    Who founded the “All India Harijan Samaj” in 1932?
Mahatma Gandhi.

15.    Who gave the slogan “Dilli Chalo” or “March to Delhi”?
Subhash Chandra Bose.

16.    Who presided over the Cabinet Mission?
Sir. P.Lawrence.

17.    In which session of Indian National Congress, the moderates and extremists sections of congress reunited?
1916 Lucknow.

18.    When was the English East India Company established?
1600 A.D.

19.    Which incident provoked Gandhiji to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Chauri Chaura incident.

20.    Who wrote the book “India’s First War of Independence”?
Vinayak Samodar Savarkar.

21.    What was the agenda of the Round Table Conference (1930-1932)?
Discuss the Simon Commission Report.

22.    At which session of the Indian National Congress was “Vande Mataram” sung for the first time?
1896 Session.

23.    Who gave the slogan” Give me blood and I promise you freedom”?
Subhash Chandra Bose.

24.    When did the Government of the English East India Company come to an end?
1858 A.D.

25.    Where did the Congress Working committee first accept the idea of the Quit India Movement?
Wardha.

26.    When did Indian National Congress adopt the resolution of “self Government” for the first time?
1906.

27.    Which leader died on the day the Non cooperation movement was launched in 1920?
Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

28.    In 1938, Subhash Chandra Bose was elected as the president of Indian National Congress defeating Gandhiji’s candidate. Who was this candidate?
Pattabhi Sita Ramayya

29.    Who is the only Keralite to become the President of Indian National Congress?
Chettur Sankaran Nair.

30.    Which year onwards Gandhi Jayanthi is celebrated as international non violence day?
2007.

31.    The only national leader who was in favour of the Cripp’s plan and the acceptance of the principle of Pakistan?
C.Rajagopalachari.


32.    Which session of Indian National Congress passed resolution on national economic programme and on fundamental rights and duties?
Karachi session of 1931.

33.    Who was proclaimed as the emperor of India during the great Indian Mutiny of 1857?
Bahadur Shah II.

34.    When did Indian National Congress adopt a resolution demanding complete independence for the first time?
1929.

35.    Who was the viceroy of India when Montague- Chelmsford reforms were introduced?
Lord Chelmsford.
36.    What is the nick name of the English East India Company?
John Company.

37.    Who was the Prime Minister of Britain during the Revolt of 1857?
Lord Palmerstone.

38.    Where was the Provisional Government of Independent India (Azad Hind) formed?
Singapore.

39.    In which act, the rule of East India Company ended in India?
Govt. of India Act, 1858.

40.    The Kakinada session of the Indian National Congress, which inspired the launch of the Vaikom Satyagraha , was held in :
1923.

41.    The Cripps Mission visited India during the regime of :
Lord Linlithgow.

42.    Who founded the Indian League?
Shishir Kumar Ghose.                                                                                                                              

43.    The famous INA trials took place at the Red Fort, Delhi in?
1945.

44.    Who wrote the book “The origin of the Indian National Congress”?
Pattabhi Sita Ramayya.

45.    Who was the leader of the Revolt of 1857 at Jagadishpur?
Kunwar Singh.


46.    “The congress is in reality a civil war without arms” Who said this?
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.

47.    The second visit of Simon Commission was in?
1929.

48.    Name the viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was repealed?
Lord Reeding.

49.    Who was the president of the Indian National Congress in the Gaya Session of 1922?
C.R.Das.

50.    When did Gandhiji start the Sabarmati Ashram?
1916.

FOR INDIA FREEDOM QUIZ/ INDIA INDEPENDENCE QUIZ (PART I), PLEASE VISIT THE BELOW LINK

http://questionforall.blogspot.in/2009/08/india-freedom-quiz-india-independence.html

SOLVED PAPER OF JUNIOR MALE NURSE IN THE KERALA MINERALS AND METALS LTD-EXAM HELD ON 13-07-2012

SOLVED PAPER OF JUNIOR MALE NURSE IN THE KERALA MINERALS AND METALS LTD-EXAM HELD ON 13-07-2012
QUESTION PAPER CODE-111/2012.

1.    Disulfiram is a drug used in the treatment of :
Alcoholism.

2.    What is the maximum volume that can be given IM?
1ml.

3.    Rifampicin is used for prophylaxis of :
Leprosy.

4.    The diagnostic study to assess left ventricular dysfunction is :
Angiogram.

5.    Verapamil is :
Calcium channel blocker.

6.    Acid base imbalance that develops in acute renal failure is :
Metabolic alkalosis.

7.    Clay coloured stool is suggestive of :
Obstructive jaundice.

8.    Surgery done for myasthenia gravis is :
Sympathectomy.

9.    What is the effect of cyclosporine in a patient undergone renal transplantation?
Immunosuppressant.

10.    Normal glomerular filtration rate is :
100ml/mt.

11.    Carpeltunnelsyndrome is caused by :
Injury to wrist joint.

12.    Position in which the patient is to be cared after lower extremity amputation is :
Side lying with amputated side up.

13.    Speech centre is :
Broca’s area.

14.    Closure of anterior fontanel takes place by:
1 ½ year.

15.    Amount of current used in giving ECT is :
150-180V.

16.    Surgical fusion of a joint is known as :
Arthrodesis.

17.    The maximum height at which the enema can should be held while giving enema is :
45 cm.

18.    The pituitary hormone that stimulate secretion of milk is :
Prolactin.

19.    The most common site of occurring peptic ulcers in stomach:
Pyloric portion.

20.    Parenteral preparation of potassium should be administered slow to prevent:
Cardiac arrest.

21.    Causative agent of mumps is :
Paramixovirus.

22.    Dose of acetyl salicylic acid is :
10mg/kg/dose.

23.    Expected date of delivery for a lady whose LMP was August 15 is :
May 22.

24.    Drug of choice for  rheumatic fever is :
Penicillin.

25.    Best method to prevent foot drop in client on bed rest is to use:
Sandbags.

26.    Florence Nightingale was born in :
May 12, 1820.

27.    Normal pH of blood is :
7

28.    Developmental task of adolescence is :
Identity vs role confusion.

29.    Rate of chest compression in one person CPCR is :
120-140/mt.

30.    Sequence of taking vital sign in a newborn infant is :
TPR.

31.    The mineral element which is essential for synthesis of thyroxin is :
Iodine.

32.    Neonatal reflex elicited by touching the cheeks of the baby is :
Sucking reflex.

33.    Forerunner of modern public health is :
Louis Pasteur.

34.    Deficiency of which vitamin causes Pellagra I?
Niacin.

35.    Another term of superego is :
Conscience.

36.    Pacemaker of heart is :
SA node.

37.    Making up stories to fill in the gaps of memory is :
Confabulation.

38.    Hemiplegia involves:
Paralysis of one side of the body.

39.    First foetal movement felt by mother is termed :
Quickening.

40.    Normal head circumference in a new born is :
34-36 cm.

41.    VP shunt is the surgical management for :
Brain tumor.

42.    The most important observation for a patient in labor in Pitocin augmentation is :
Monitoring and recording the length of contraction.

43.    Tumor of blood vessel of brain is :
Giloma.

44.    Time of ovulation corresponds to :
Progesterone level is high.

45.    Sudden fall of temperature is called :
Crisis.

46.    Which of the following solution is isotonic?
(A) 0.9% saline    (B) Dextran    (C) Relapse    (D) Quotidian.
Ans: (A) 0.9% saline.

47.    Macewen sign is an indication of :
Hydrocephalus.

48.    Type of speech in which in one repeats what others have just said is :
Echolalia.

49.    Which of the following is an osmotic diuretic?
(A) Lasix.    (B) Spirinolactone    (C) Aldactone    (D) Mannitol.
Ans: Lasix.

50.    What does P wave of ECG represent?
Atrial depolarization.

51.    Alma Ata Declaration was made in :
1978.

52.    Gohn foci is seen in :
Tuberculosis.

53.    Palliative care means:
Pain relief.

54.    Invertogram is one of the diagnostic test in :
Diverticulum.

55.    How much will be the drop rate/mt if 500 ml of fluid is to be administered over 24 hours via ordinary drip set with drop factor 15 drops/ml.
5 drops/mt.

56.    Bronchiolitis is commonly seen in which age group?
<6 br="" yr.="">
57.    Respiratory center is located at:
Medulla oblongata.

58.    Stimulation of vagus nerve results in :
Increase in heart rate.

59.    For giving CPCR, after ascertaining unresponsiveness one should:
Call for help.

60.    The purpose of peritoneal dialysis is to:
Provide fluid.

61.    The presence of synovial fluid in joints reduces:
Friction in joints.

62.    Dose of BCG vaccination is :
0.1ml I/D.

63.    The ear bones that transmit the vibrations to cochlea are situated in :
Inner ear.

64.    Positive Homan’s sign is indicative of :
Deep vein thrombosis.

65.    A cataract is :
Opacity of lens.

66.    Local hot application transfer heat from the body by :
Conduction.

67.    Underproduction of thyroxin produces:
Myxedema.

68.    Anxiety expressed through physical symptoms is :
Regression.

69.    Station +1 during labor indicates that the presenting part is :
Slightly above the ischial spine.

70.    The safest position for  a lady with cord prolapsed in labor is :
Supine.

71.    The percentage of water in human body is :
60%.

72.    The main action of ranitidine in treating peptic ulcer is :
Neutralize gastric acidity.

73.    How many calories does 1 gm of fat give?
9.

74.    The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is:
Potassium.

75.    Important observation for a patient on anticoagulant therapy include:
Hypotension.

76.    Infection with group A Beta hemolytic streptococci can lead to :
Rheumatic fever.

77.    Antibodies are produced by :
Lymphocytes.

78.    Normally respiratory centre is stimulated by :
Oxygen.

79.    Patient recovering from general anesthesia should be positioned in :
Supine position.

80.    Surgery involving  renal pelvis is :
Pyeloplasty.

81.    Pain in appendicitis is experienced :
Below umbilicus.

82.    Use of Carbamezapine in psychiatry is as a :
Antipsychotic.

83.    Lumbar Sympathectomy relieves:
Spinal cord compression.

84.    Which of the following nursing measures should be avoided in a patient with increased in cranial pressure?
(A) Suctioning for prolonged time.
(B) Oral feeding.
(C) Fowler’s position.
(D) Catheterization.

Ans: (B) Oral feeding.

85.    Purple discoloration of vaginal mucosa in pregnancy is :
Chadwick’s sign.

86.    Germ theory of disease was propounded by:
Louis Pasteur.

87.    Lugol’s solution  contains:
Potassium iodide.

88.    Normal serum potassium level is :
2.5-3.5 m Eq/L.

89.    The amount of bleaching powder for disinfection of 1000 gallons of water is:
10 gm.

90.    Prolonged use of Khesari dhal can lead to :
Lathyrism.

91.    Which of the following feature is not related to Gushing’s triad?
(A) Systolic BP    (B) Hypothermia   
(C) Bradycardia    (D) Widening pulse pressure
    Ans: (B) Hypothermia    .
92.    First AIDS case in India was reported in the year:
1987.

93.    Vitamin E is otherwise known as :
Tocopherol.

94.    Best method of oxygen administration to a 2 month old baby is :
Oxyhood.

95.    3-tier system of Local self Govt, at Block level is :
Panchayath samithi.

96.    The backbone of public health nursing is :
Homevisit.

97.    Optimum level of fluoride in drinking water per litre is :
0.5-0.8 g.

98.    Amount of blood used for exchange transfusion in a neonate is :
50ml/kg body weight.

99.    An irreversible side effect of anti psychotics is :
Akathisia.

100.    Hardness of water is expressed as :
mg.

SOLVED PAPER OF JUNIOR MANAGER (INFORMATION MANAGEMENT) IN THE KERALA STATE CIVIL SUPPLIES CORPORATION LTD

SOLVED PAPER OF JUNIOR MANAGER (INFORMATION MANAGEMENT) IN THE KERALA STATE CIVIL SUPPLIES CORPORATION LTD
DATE OF TEST-17-04-2013.

1.    Which of the following is not a combinational circuit?
(A) Comparator    (B) Multiplexer    (C) Adder    (D) Counter.
Ans: Counter.

2.    The number of select inputs required to design a full adder using decoder is :
3.

3.    If Data input(D) , Select inputs(S0 & S1) and enable input (EN) of an active low output 1:4 demultiplexer, are all LOW, then its output will be:
All are high.

4.    If 

output of a D Flip Flop is connected to its Data input(D) , we get:







Ans:Counter.


 
5.    A 12 KHz signal is applied to the CLK input of a 3-bit asynchronous counter, then  the frequency of signal at the last stage output is :
1.5 KHz.

6.    Select the data type which cannot be checked in switch-case statement :
Float.

7.    Which of the following is not a logical operator?
(A) &         (B) &&         (C) ||         (D) None of these.
Ans: &.

8.    Write the output of the following program segment:
char *s1=“abc”, *s2=“abd”, printf (“%d”, strcmp(s1, s2));
0.

9.    Type of class that allows only one subject of it to be created:
Singleton class.

10.    Select the type of function which is not the member of class:
(A) Static function    (B) Friend Function    (C) Const Function    (D) Virtual Function.
Ans: Friend Function.

11.    Choose the correct statement:
(A) A constructor is called at the time of use of a class
(B) A constructor is called at the time of use of an object
(C) A constructor is called at the time of declaration of a class
(D) A constructor is called at the time of declaration of an object.
Ans: A constructor is called at the time of declaration of an object.

12.    Which of the following approach is adapted by C++?
(A) Top-down    (B) Bottom-up        (C) Right-left        (D) Left-right.
Ans: (B) Bottom-up.

13.    The correct class of the object  cout is :
ostream.

14.    Which of the following problem causes an exception?
(A) A run-time error.         (B) A problem in calling function
(C) Missing semicolon in statement in main ()    (D) A Syntax error.
Ans: (A) A run-time error.

15.    Data members available only in the class hierarchy chain is :
Protected data members.

16.    Which of the following is a fixed table?
(A) Opcode table     (B) Symbol table    (C) Argument table    (D) Literal table
Ans: Opcode table.

17.    Which of the following is not a RISC machine?
(A) SPARC    (B) Cray T3E    (C) Intel 80 x 86    (D) Power PC.
Ans: (C) Intel 80 x 86.

18.    A Bootstrap loader is an example of :
Absolute loader.

19.    Parser is used for :
Syntax analysis.

20.    LTORG is used for:
Placing literal pool at the very next location.

21.    Which of the following is the meta model?
(A) Water fall model    (B) Prototyping model   
(C) RAD model    (D) Spiral model
Ans: (D) Spiral model.

22.    A system testing carried out by the test team within the developing organization is :
Alpha testing.

23.    In which level of SEI Capability Maturity Model both product and process metrices are defined:
Managed level.

24.    Constructive Cost Model for software cost estimation is introduced by :
B.Boehm.

25.    Set of activities for identifying, organizing and controlling modifications to the software being built by the programming team are called:
Software Configuration Management.

26.    A syntax directed definition that uses synthesized attributes exclusively is said to be:
S-attributed definition.

27.    Information needed by a single execution of a procedure is managed using a contiguous block of storage called:
Activation Record.

28.    The output of Lexical Analyzer is called:
Tokens.

29.    Which of the following is a Top down parser?
(A)Predictive parser    (B) Operator precedence parser
(C) Shift Reduce parser    (D) LR parser.
Ans: Predictive parser.

30.    Which of the following is not a code optimization technique?
(A) Dead code elimination    (B) Code motion   
(C) Copy propagation    (D) Back patching.
Ans: (D) Back patching.

31.    Which of the following is an approach to implementing Dynamic scope in storage allocation?
(A) Deep access    (B) Block access    (C) Access path    (D) None of the above.
Ans:  Deep Access.

32.    Which of the following is used to specify the syntactic structure of formal languages?
(A) Regular Grammar        (B) Context Sensitive Grammar   
(C) Context Free Grammar    (D) All of the above.
Ans: Context Free Grammar.

33.    The CYK parsing algorithm uses:
Bottom up parsing.

34.    Which of the following is a Parser generator tool?
(A) Lex    (B) Yacc    (C)Both (A) and (B)    (D) None of these.
Ans: Yacc.

35.    Externally defined symbols are resolved by:
Linker.

36.    The process identifier of a null process:
0.

37.    The instruction used to accomplish the effects of P and V in a dominant way in modern hardware:
Test and Set.

38.    VAD in memory management stands for:
Virtual Address Descriptor.

39.    Kernel object that will periodically signal your process that a given amount of time has elapsed:
Waitable timer.

40.    The two phase locking protocol ensures:
Serializability.

41.    A CPU register that is loaded with the length of a block of memory containing a program:
Limit Register.

42.    The process of splitting of data into equal size partition over multiple disks:
Data Stripping.

43.    The linear formula for I/O seek time, with n tracks and startup time s, where m is a constant depends on disk drive:
Ts= m*n+s.

44.    The situation where two or more processes are reading or writing some shared data and the result depends on who run precisely when is called:
Race condition.

45.    Two dimensional chart that plots the activity of a unit  on the Y-axis versus the time on the X- axis:
Gantt Chart.

46.    Which of the following is true about the time complexity O(n)?
(A) There are n number of statements in the algorithm.
(B)Computation time taken by the algorithm is proportional to n.
(C) Computation time taken by the algorithm is less than n seconds
(D) All of the above.
Ans: (B) Computation time taken by the algorithm is proportional to n.

47.    Which algorithm is used to search a given text for a particular keyword pattern and record the number of times the keyword or pattern is found?
Boyer Moore Algorithm.

48.    The general strategy in external sorting is to begin by sorting small batches of records from a file in internal memory. These small batches are commonly called:
(A) Run Lists    (B) Initial Runs    (C) Initial strings    (D) All of the above.
Ans: (D) All of the above.

49.    Worst case efficiency of sequential search algorithm is :
O(n).

50.    Determine an upper bound on the recurrence T(n)=2T([n/2])+n:
T(n)=O(n log n).

51.    Average case complexity of a quick sort algorithm is :
O(n log n).

52.    Recursive algorithms are based on :
Top-down approach.

53.    The number of null branches for a binary tree with n nodes is:
n+1.

54.    The complexity of Greedy algorithm for scheduling jobs with deadlines and profits:
O(n).

55.    In a Max-heap algorithm, for every node i other than root:

56.    CPU register that holds the address of the instructions to be executed next:
Program counter.

57.    The DMA transfer technique where the transfer of one word data at a time:
Cycle stealing.

58.    What command is used to reset a MODEM when using the AT Command Set?
ATZ.

59.    Which of the following is a parallel communication standard?
(A) CAT 5    (B) RS 232    (C) RS 232 C        (D) None of the above.

Ans: (D) None of the above.

60.    Which of the following displays time-space flow of data through the pipeline?
(A) Performance Chart    (B) Datapath   
(C) Reservation Table        (D) None of the above.
Ans: Reservation Table.

61.    In Inkjet technology the droplets of ink are deflected by :
Multi directional nozzles.

62.    Number of clock cycles required to process N tasks in a K stage pipelined processor:
K+N-1.

63.    The type of pipeline hazard created when the datapath hardware in the pipeline cannot support all of the overlapped instructions:
Structural hazard.

64.    Cache performance can be measured in terms of average access time using the formula:
Hit time + miss rate * miss penalty.

65.    Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) Statically scheduled superscalar processors use out-of –order execution.
(B) Superscalar processors issue varying number of instructions per clock.
(C) VLIW processors issue fixed number of instructions per clock.
(D) Multiple issue processors allow multiple instructions to issue in a clock cycle.
Ans: Statically scheduled superscalar processors use out-of –order execution.

66.    Which type of cable run is most often associated with fibre optic cable?
Backbone cable.

67.    The type of connector used with twisted-pair networking cable in most business LANs:
RJ-45.

68.    What characteristic of UTP cable helps to reduce the effects of interference?
The twisting of the wires in the cable.

69.    Which data communications standard provided broadband access in a wireless network?
Wimax.

70.    Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
Generally uses lasers as the light source.

71.    Which of the physical topologies has the least likelihood of having a collision?
Mesh.

72.    What do you call a wireless access point that improves cellular reception inside a home or office building?
Femtocell.

73.    What layer of OSI does the encryption/decryption?
Presentation Layer.

74.    What is the default port number of DNS?
53.

75.    Which of the following networks uses software to establish a secure channel on the Internet for transmitting data?
(A) Secure Virtual Channel.    (B) Secure Public Network.   
(C) Virtual Public Network.    (D) Virtual Private Network.
Virtual Private Network.

76.    All the following hidden surface algorithms employ image space approach except?
(A) Back face removal    (B) Depth buffer removal
(D) Scan line method        (D) All of the above.
Ans: Back face removal.

77.    Random scan monitors are also referred to as:
(A) Vector display    (B) Stroke writing display
(C) Calligraphic display    (D) All of the above.
Ans: All of the above.

78.    Which of the following is not a video file extension?
(A) MP4    (B) JPG    (C) OT    (D) AVI
Ans: JPG.

79.    DAT is an acronym for:
Digital Audio Tape.

80.    In a rule-based system, procedural domain knowledge is in the form of :
Production Rules.

81.    An AI technique that allows computers to understand associations and relationships between objects and events is called:
Pattern matching.

82.    Command used in SQL to remove an index from the database:
DROP INDEX.

83.    Which of the following is not a logical database structure?
(A) Relational    (B) Network    (C) Tree    (D) Chain.
Ans: Chain.

84.    The process of cleaning junk data is called:
Data purging.

85.    URL stands for:
Uniform Resource Locator.

86.    The logic statement ‘For all A there is no B such that p(A, B) is true’ can be expressed in predicate form as:

87.    Context Free Grammar is also called:
Type 2 grammar.

88.    Recursive languages can be recognized using:
Turing Machine.

89.    Which of the following languages cannot be generated by the grammar?
G= ({S}, {a, b}, S, P) where

(A)

(B) a    (C) ab    (D) aabb
Ans: (A).

90.    The language

is :
CFL but not Regular.

91.    In which part of Compiler, the concept of FSA is used?
Lexical analysis.

92.    Languages that can be recognized by FSA is called:
Regular languages.

93.    Languages of Type 1 grammars can be recognized  using:
Linear Bounded Automata.

94.    Which of the following languages over {0, 1, 2} is accepted by a deterministic PDA?

95.    If the start symbol S of a given CFG G is useless, then L(G) is :
Empty.

96.    Decimal  equivalent of the signed binary number 11110101 in 1’s complement form is :
-10.

97.    Minimum number of AND gates required to implement the Boolean expression:
ABC’ +AB’C +A’BC is
 Ans: 2.

98.    Looping on a K-map always results in the elimination of :
Variables within the loop that appear in both complemented and uncomplemented form.

99.    In Boolean algebra, x+xy =x is called:
Absorption Law.

100.    The minimized SOP form of the logic function

 

is :
Y’ + X.Z’.